Questions

Choices

Critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural frequency of the system in

1. Longitudinal vibration provided the shaft is vertical

2. Transverse vibration

3. Longitudinal vibrations

4. Torsional vibrations

If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel whose mean radius is half the mean radius of the former, then energy stored in the later at the same speed will be

1.Same as the first one 2.One and half times the first one 3.Four times the first one 4.One fourth of the first one

If the speed of the engine varies between 390 and 410 rpm in a cycle of operation, the coefficient of fluctuation of speed will be

0.1

0.2

0.5

0.7

In a flywheel, the safe stress is 25.2 MN/m2 and the density is 7 g/cm3.Then what is the maximum peripheral velocity (in m/s)?

1. 120

2. 60

3. 30

4. 45

A reciprocating engine, running at 80rad/s, is supported on springs. The static deflection of the spring is 1mm.Take g=10m/s2.when the engine runs what will be the frequency of vibration of the system?

1.90 rad/s 2.100 rad/s 3.80 rad/s 4.120 rad/s

The static deflection of a shaft under a flywheel is 4 mm. Take g=10m/s2.What is the critical speed in rad/s?

1.50 2.2.5 3.20 4.40

Hammer blow

1.is the maximum vertical unbalanced force caused by the mass added to balance the reciprocating masses 2.varies inversely with the square of the speed 3.is the maximum horizontal unbalanced force caused by the mass provided to balance the reciprocating masses. 4.varies as the square root of the speed

The balancing weights are introduced in planes parallel to the plane of rotation of the disturbing mass. To obtain complete dynamic balance, the minimum number of balancing weights to be introduced in different planes is

1. 3

2. 4

3. 1

4. 2

Critical damping is a function of

1. Stiffness and natural frequency

2. Mass and damping coefficient

3. Mass and stiffness

4. Natural frequency and damping coefficient

Whirling speed of the shaft is the speed at which

1. combination of transverse and longitudinal vibration occurs

2. shaft tends to vibrate vigorously in transverse direction

3. torsional vibrations occur

4. Shaft tends to vibrate in longitudinal direction

In a system subjected to damped forced vibrations, the ratio of maximum displacement to the static deflection is known as

1.Damping factor 2.Magnification factor 3.Critical damping ratio 4.Logarithmic decrement

For steady state forced vibrations, the phase lag at resonance is

1. 45°

2. 90°

3. 0°

4. 180°

In reciprocating engines primary forces

1. are partially balanced

2. are balanced by secondary forces

3. cannot be balanced

4. are completely balanced

A governor is said to be isochronous when the equilibrium speed for all radii of rotation of the balls within the working range

1. varies uniformly

2. has uniform acceleration

3. is not constant

4. is constant

When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the governor speed

1.first increases and then decreases 2.remains unaffected 3.increases 4.decreases

When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed, the governor is said to be

1.unstable 2.stable 3.hunt 4.isochronous

In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is

1. positive during major portion of the stroke

2. positive throughout

3. negative throughout

4. negative during major portion of the stroke

The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be

1. to raise the nose and dip the tail

2. to dip the nose and raise the tail

3. to dip the nose and tail

4. to raise the nose and tail

A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a left turn in a curved path. If the engine rotates in the same direction as that of wheels, then due to the centrifugal forces

1.the reaction on the inner wheels increases and on the outer wheels decreases 2.

the reaction on the outer wheels increases and on the inner wheels decreases

the reaction on the front wheels increases and on the rear wheels decreases

the reaction on the rear wheels increases and on the front wheels decreases

A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced by two masses placed at a fixed distance apart. The two masses form an equivalent dynamical system, if

the sum of two masses is equal to the total mass of the body

the centre of gravity of the two masses coincides with that of the body

the sum of mass moment of inertia of the masses about their centre of gravity is equal to the mass moment of inertia of the body

All of the anwers

The maximum fluctuation of energy is the

1. difference between the maximum and minimum energies

2. sum of maximum and minimum energies

3. ratio of the maximum energy and minimum energy

4. ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle

The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank with the line of stroke is

0°

90°

180°

360°

The partial balancing means

balancing partially the revolving masses

balancing partially the reciprocating masses

best balancing of engines

all of the above

A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8 kgm² fluctuates by 30 rpm for a fluctuation in energy of 1936 Joules. The mean speed of the flywheel is (in rpm)

600

900

968

2940

In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod length to the crank radius is kept very large in order to

1.minimise the effect of primary forces 2.

minimise the effect of secondary forces

have perfect balancing

start the locomotive quickly

The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination
of stroke ( θ ) is equal to

45° and 135°

90° and 135°

135° and 225°

4.45° and 225°

In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along the perpendicular to the line of stroke, is known as

tractive force

2.swaying couple 3.

hammer blow

blowing

Secondary forces in reciprocating mass on engine frame are

1.of same frequency as of primary forces 2.four times the frequency as of primary forces 3.twice the frequency as of primary forces 4.none of the options

In order to have a complete balance of the several revolving masses in different planes

1.the resultant couple must be zero 2.none of the options 3.the resultant force must be zero 4.both the resultant force and couple must be zero

In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and critical damping coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal to

1.0.2 2.0.4 3.0.6 4.0.8

When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and frequency is equal to

1.0.5 2.6.28 3.1 4.3.14

If the ratio of frequency of excitation to the natural frequency of vibrations is 1.414, then the transmissibility of vibration will the

0.5

In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration

1. increases exponentially with time

2. decreases exponentially with time

3. increases linearly with time

4. decreases linearly with time

The steering of a ship means

1. movement of a complete ship up and down in vertical plane about transverse axis

2. turning of a complete ship in a curve towards right or left, while it moves forward

3. tilting of a complete ship

4. rolling of a complete ship side-ways

A shaft carrying three rotors will have

1. two nodes

2. three nodes

3. no node

4. one node

When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the action of the force of gravity, the body is known as

1.torsional pendulum 2.second's pendulum 3.simple pendulum 4.compound pendulum

The secondary unbalanced force is maximum __________ in one revolution of the crank.

1.four times 2.eight times 3.two times 4.sixteen times

For two governors A and B, the lift of sleeve of governor A is more than that of governor B, for a given fractional change in speed. It indicates that

1.both governors A and B are equally sensitive 2.none of the options 3.governor A is more sensitive than governor B 4.governor B is more sensitive than governor A

Which of the following is used to control the speed variations of the engine caused by the fluctuations of the engine turning moment?

1.flywheel 2.none of these options 3.Governor 4.connecting rod

A system in dynamic balance implies that

1. there will absolutely no wear of bearings

2. there is no critical speed in the system

3. the system is critically damped

4. the system is also statically balanced

In a spring mass vibrating system, the natural frequency of vibration is reduced to half the value when a second spring is added to the first spring in series. Determine the stiffness of the second in terms of that of the first spring.

1. 1/3 of first spring

2. 3 times of first spring

3. 2 times of first spring

4. as the same of first spring

What is the minimum damping ratio for an underdamped system such that its overshoot is limited to 10 percent?

0.59

0.69

1.59

If magnification factor is high for constant damping factor

the excitation frequency may get resonance or near the resonance

the excitation frequency may be higher than resonance

the excitation frequency may be lower than resonance

none of these

What type of vibration is predominant in the beam structure?

Transverse

longitudinal

torsional

none of these

Non-coplaner concurrent forces are those forces which

1. do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane

2. meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane

3. meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane

4. do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane

Which of the following statement is correct?

1.The kinetic energy of a body during impact remains constant. 2.The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the kinetic energy of a body after impact. 3.The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the kinetic energy of a body after impact. 4.The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the kinetic energy of a body after impact.

The principle of transmissibility of forces states that, when a force acts upon a body, its effect is

1. same at every point on its line of action

2. different at different points on its line of action

3. minimum, if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body

4. maximum, if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body

The angular velocity (in rad / s) of a body rotating at N revolutions per minute is

1. 2πN/60

2. 2πN/180

3. πN/60

4. πN/180

According to the law of moments, if a number of coplaner forces acting on a particle are in equilibrium, then

1.their algebraic sum is zero
2.the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero 3.the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their resultant force about the same point. 4.their lines of action are at equal distances

The centroid of a semi-circle area lies at a distance of __________ from its base measured along the vertical radius.

1.3r/4pi 2.3r/ 8 3.4r/ 3pi 4.8r/3

A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle of inclination with the horizontal is a. The effort applied parallel to the plane is given by(where µ = tanf = Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body.)

1.P = W tana 2.P = W (cosa + µsina) 3.P = W tan(a + f) 4.P = W (sina + µcosa)

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

1.Velocity 2.Acceleration 3.Speed 4.Force

The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and takes place in the same direction in which the force acts. This statement is known as

1. Newton's first law of motion

2. Newton's third law of motion

3. none of these

4. Newton's second law of motion

The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its position, is known as

1. moment of inertia

2. centre of percussion

3. centre of gravity

4. centre of mass

A couple produces

1. combined translatory and rotational motion

2. none of these

3. translatory motion

4. rotational motion

A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of velocity after rebounding, the ball will rise to a height of

1. 4 m

2. 3 m

3. 2 m

4. 1 m

The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins to move down the plane, is called

1. angle of friction

2. none of these

3. angle of repose

4. angle of projection

Varingon’s theorem of moments states that if a number of coplaner forces acting on a particle, then

1.their lines of action are at equal distances 2.the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their resultant force about the same point. 3.their algebraic sum is zero 4.the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero

Onejoule is equal to

1.1 N-m 2.100 N-m 3.0.1 N-m 4.10 N-m

Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing through its vertex and parallel to the base, is __________ than that passing through its C.G. and parallel to the base.

1.seven times 2.nine times 3.five times 4.six times

According to lami’s theorem

1.the three forces must be in equilibrium 2.the three forces must be equal
3.the three forces must be at 120° to each other 4.if the three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, then each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two

The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies is

1.one 2.zero 3.more than one 4.between zero and one

A lead ball with a certain velocity is made to strike a wall, it falls down, but rubber ball of same mass and with same velocity strikes the same wall, it rebounds. Select the correct reason from the following:

1.both the balls undergo an equal change in momentum 2.the change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is less than the lead ball 3.the change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is more than the lead ball 4.none of the options

A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a rough vertical wall. The force of friction will act

1.away from the wall at its upper end 2.downward at its upper end 3.towards the wall at its upper and 4.upward at its upper end

Which of the following statement is correct in connection with projectiles?

1.A path, traced by a projectile in the space, is known as trajectory. 2.The velocity with which a projectile is projected, is known as the velocity of projection. 3.The angle, with the horizontal, at which a projectile is projected is known as angle of projection. 4.all of the above

The acceleration of a body sliding down an inclined surface is

1.g sin(theta)
2.g tan(theta) 3.g cos(theta) 4.none of these options

Two forces are acting at an angle of 120°. The bigger force is 40N and the resultant is perpendicular to the smaller one. The smaller force is

1.40 N 2.30 N 3.20 N 4.none of these options

The centroid a T-section 100 mm x 150 mm x 50 mm from its bottom is

1.87.5mm 2.50mm 3.75mm 4.125mm

The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is __________ the range on upward inclined plane for the same velocity of projection and angle of projection.

1.less than 2. equal to 3.more than
4.All of these options

If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the angle between the two forces is

1.30° 2.90° 3.60° 4.120°

Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis perpendicular to the section is

1.pi d3/32 2.pi d4/64 3.pi d3/16 4.pi d4/32

If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then

1.the lines of action of these forces are parallel 2.these forces are equal 3.the lines of action of these forces meet in a point 4.none of these options

Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments

1.cannot balance each other. 2.produce a couple and an unbalanced force 3.balance each other 4.are equivalent

The coefficient of friction depends on

1.area of contact 2.strength of surfaces 3.nature of surface 4.all of these options

A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid body

1.cannot balance each other 2.none of these options 3.balance each other 4.produce moment of a couple

A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec is most nearly

1.96 m 2.kinematic friction 3.38 m 4.62.5 m

A boat is traveling along a circular path having a radius of 20 m. Determine the magnitude of the boat's acceleration if at a given instant the boat's speed is v = 5 m/s and the rate of increase in speed is v = 2 m/s2.

1.a = 2.36 m/s2 2.a = 12.50 m/s2 3.a = 2.00 m/s2 4.a = 1.25 m/s2

A force acting on a body may

1.introduce internal stresses 2.retard its motion 3.balance the other forces acting on it 4.all of these options

If a number of forces act simultaneously on
a particle, it is possible

1.to replace them by a single force 2.to replace them by a couple 3.not to replace them by a single force 4.to replace them by a single force through C.G.

Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?

1.Momentum and impulse 2.Torque and work 3.Torque and energy 4.None of these options

The weight of a body is due to

1.gravitational pull exerted by the earth 2.centripetal force of earth
3.gravitational force of attraction towards the center of the earth. 4.forces experienced by body in atmosphere

Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the ball with velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a velocity

1.v 2.v/4 3.v/2 4.v/8

Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing through its C.G. and parallel to the base, is

1.bh3/4 2.bh3/12 3.bh3/8 4.bh3/36

When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied

1.non-coplanar forces 2.moment 3.coplanar force 4.couple

A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if

1.their total sum is zero 2.two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
3.sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero 4.none of these options

D' Alembert's principle is used for

1.determining stresses in the truss 2.solving kinematic problems 3.reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem 4.stability of floating bodies

A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if

1.the floor is smooth, the wall is rough 2.the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces 3.the floor is rough, the wall is smooth 4.will be in equilibrium under all conditions.

The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as

1.coefficient of friction 2.angle of repose 3.angle of friction 4.friction resistance.

Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is

1.dependent on the materials of contact surface 2.independent of the area of contact surfaces 3.proportional to normal load between the surfaces 4.proportional to velocity of sliding

Coulomb friction is the friction between

1.bodies having relative motion 2.two lubricated surfaces 3.two dry surfaces 4.solids and liquids

Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is

1.more 2.may be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity 3.same 4.less

The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another surface is called

1.limiting friction 2.rolling friction 3.sliding friction 4.kinematic friction

A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly equal to

1.25 2.100 3.50 4.250

1.a = 2.36 m/s2 2.a = 12.50 m/s2 3.a = 2.00 m/s2 4.a = 1.25 m/s2

A train travels along a horizontal circular curve that has a radius of 200 m. If the speed of the train is uniformly increased from 30 km/h to 45 km/h in 5 s, determine the magnitude of the acceleration at the instant the speed of the train is 40 km/h.

1.a = 0.617 m/s2 2.a = 1.451 m/s2 3.a = 1.037 m/s2 4.a = 0.833 m/s2

The mechanism used in a shaping machine is

a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs

a closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs

a closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute pair and 2 sliding pairs

an inversion of the single slider-crank chain

The lengths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs only are p, q, r and s units. Given that p < q < r < s. Which of these links should be the fixed one, for obtaining a "double crank" mechanism?

links of length 'p'

links of length 'q'

links of length 'r'

links of length 's'

The number of degrees of freedom of a planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joint is

In a four- bar linkage, S denotes the shortest link length, L is the longest link length, P and Q are the lengths of other two links. At least one of the three moving links will rotate by 360 degree if

S + L less than or equal to P + Q

S + L > to P + Q

S + P less than or equal to L + Q

S + P > to L + Q

Mobility of a statically indeterminate structure is

Less than equal to -1

Greater than or equal to 2

For a four bar linkage in toggle position, the value of mechanical advantage is?

0.5

infinite

The mechanism used in a shaping machine is

a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs

a closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs

a closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute pair and 2 sliding pairs

an inversion of the single slider-crank chain

links of length p

links of length q

links of length r

links of length s

In order to draw the acceleration diagram, it is necessary to determine the

Coriolis component of acceleration in the case of

crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism

slider-crank mechanism

four bar mechanism

pantograph

The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect to another point on the same link is

parallel to the link

perpendicular to the link joining the points

at 45 degree to the link joining the points

at 30 degree

Ball and socket forms a

turning pair

rolling pair

sliding pair

Spherical Pair

A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relative motion between link is completely constrained, is called as

structure

mechanism

kinematic chain

inversion

which of the following is an inversion of slider crank chain?

beam engine

watt indicator

elliptical trammel

whitworth quick return motion mechanism

In SHM motion, acceleration is proportional to

velocity

displacement

rate of change of velocity

stroke

For a SHM motion of the follower, a cosine curve represents

displacement

velocity

acceleration

jerk

cam size depends on

base circle

prime circle

pitch circle

outer circle

Transmission angle is the angle between

Input link and coupler

Input link and fixed link

Output link and coupler

Output link and fixed link

A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having 50 teeth. The two gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by the smaller gear for one revolution of arm about the centre of bigger gear is

In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.

1. equal to

2. greater than

3. none of these

4. less than

Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines of action

1.meet on the same plane 2.lie on the same line 3.meet at one point 4.none of these options

The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is

1. rotary

2. translatory

3. circular

4. translatory as well as rotatry

If a number of forces are acting at a point, theirresultant will be inclined at an angle θ with the horizontal, such that

1. tan θ = ∑Vx∑H

2. tan θ = ∑Vx∑V

3. tan θ = ∑H/∑V

4. tan θ = ∑V/∑H

The unit of energy in S.I. units is

1. watt

2. dyne

3. kg-m

4. joule

Whenever a force acts on a body and the body undergoes a displacement, then

1. work is said to be done

2. power is being transmitted

3. body has kinetic energy of translation

4. none of these

The rate of doing work is known as

1. kinetic energy

2. none of these

3. power

4. potential energy

The resultant of the two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P. Then

1. Q = 2R

2. Q = R

3. P = Q

4. none of these

When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess

1. electrical energy

2. heat energy

3. kinetic energy

4. strain energy

The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies

1. is minimum in the start and maximum at the end

2. is maximum in the start and minimum at the end

3. varies from point to point

4. is constant at every instant

The static friction

1. is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces

2. always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move

3. bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces

4. all of the above

Which of the following are vector quantities?

1. Angular velocity

2. Angular displacement

3. all of these

4. Angular acceleration

The term ‘centroid’ is

1.none of the options 2.the point of suspension 3.the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate about a certain axis 4.the same as centre of gravity

The matter contained in a body, is called

1.momentum 2.mass 3.impulsive force 4.weight

If P is the force acting on the body, m is the mass of the body and a is the acceleration of the body, then according to Newton’s second law of motion,

1.P - m.a = 0 2.P x m.a = 0 3.P + m.a = 0 4.P/m.a = 0

The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called

1.chemical energy 2.electrical energy 3.potential energy 4.kinetic energy

In order to completely specify angular displacement by a vector, it must fix

1.magnitude of angular displacement 2.all of these options 3.direction of the axis of rotation 4.sense of angular displacement

If a body is acted upon by a number of coplaner non-concurrent forces, it may

1.rotate about itself without moving 2. be completely at rest
3.move in any one direction rotating about itself 4.all of these options

A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if

1.sumof resolved parts in the vertical direction is zero (i.e. ¿V = 0) 2.sum of all the forces is zero 3.all the forces are equally inclined 4.none of these options

Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?

if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sidesof a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium

if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium

if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium

none of the above.

Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction

1.balance each other 2.constitute a couple 3.constitute a moment 4.constitute a moment of couple

The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called

1.resultant couple 2.moment of the forces 3.moment of the couple
4.none of these options

Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height

1.one-third of the total height above base 2.none of these options 3.one-fourth of the total height above base 4.three-eighth of the total height above the base

The 2-m-long bar is confined to move in the horizontal and vertical slots A and B. If the velocity of the slider block at A is 6 m/s, determine the bar's angular velocity and the velocity of block B at the instant = 60°.

angular velocity of B = 3.46 rad/s , vB = 3.46 m/s

angular velocity of B = 3.00 rad/s , vB = 3.00 m/s

angular velocity of B = 3.00 rad/s , vB = 6.00 m/s

angular velocity of B = 6.00 rad/s , vB = 10.39 m/s

A race car starting from rest moves along a straight track with an acceleration as shown in the graph (where for t 10 s, a = 8 m/s2). Determine the time t for the car to reach a speed of 50 m/s.

t = 11.25 s

t = 6.25 s

t = 12.5 s

t = 3.53 s

A two-stage missile is fired vertically from rest with an acceleration as shown in the graph. In 15 s the first stage A burns out and the second stage B ignites. How fast is the rocket moving and how far has it gone at t = 20 s? How fast is the missile moving and how far has it gone at t = 20 s?

v = 430 m/s, s = 4.30 km

2.v = 395 m/s, s = 3.69 km

v = 360 m/s, s = 3.60 km

v = 500 m/s, s = 5.00 km

A package is dropped from the plane which is flying with a constant horizontal velocity of vA = 150 ft/s at a height h = 1500 ft. Determine the radius of curvature of the path of the package just after it is released from plane at A.

9860 ft

3000 ft

1500 ft

8510 ft

The v-s graph for a rocket sled is shown. Determine the acceleration of the sled when s = 100 m and s = 175 m.

a100 = 3.75 m/s2, a175 = -1.250 m/s2

a100 = 11.11 m/s2, a175 = -25.0 m/s2

a100 = 0.333 m/s2, a175 = -1.000 m/s2

a100 = 33.3 m/s2, a175 = -25 m/s2

The pilot of flighter plane F is following 1.5 km behind the pilot of bomber B. Both planes are originally traveling at 120 m/s. In an effort to pass the bomber, the pilot in F gives his plane a constant acceleration of 12 m/s2. Determine the speed at which the pilot in the bomber sees the pilot of the fighter plane pass at the start of the passing operation the bomber is decelerating at 3 m/s2. Neglect the effect of any turning.

vF/B = 150 m/s

vF/B = 367 m/s

vF/B = 90 m/s

vF/B = 212 m/s

A car, initially at rest, moves along a straight road with constant acceleration such that it attains a velocity of 60 ft/s when s = 150 ft. Then after being subjected to another constant acceleration, it attains a final velocity of 100 ft/s when s = 325 ft. Determine the average velocity and average acceleration of the car for the entire 325-ft displacement.

1.vavg = 80.0 ft/s, aavg = 15.15 ft/s2

2.vavg = 45.2 ft/s, aavg = 13.91 ft/s2

3.vavg = 80.0 ft/s, aavg = 12.57 ft/s2

4.vavg = 55.0 ft/s, aavg = 15.15 ft/s2

The motorcyclist attempts to jump over a series of cars and trucks and lands smoothly on the other ramp, i.e., such that his velocity is tangent to the ramp at B. Determine the launch speed vA necessary to make the jump.

vA = 11.90 m/s

vA = 11.07 m/s

vA = 16.83 m/s

vA = 15.66 m/s

A ball thrown vertically upward from the top of a building with an initial velocity of vA = 35 ft/s. Determine (a) how high above the top of the building the ball will go before it stops at B, (b) the time tAB it takes to reach its maximum height, and (c) the total time tAC needed for it to reach the ground at C from the instant it is released.

h = 62.4 ft, tAB = 3.57 s, tAC = 7.14 s

h = 19.02 ft, tAB = 1.087 s, tAC = 2.17 s

h = 19.02 ft, tAB = 1.087 s, tAC = 3.30 s

h = 62.4 ft, tAB = 3.57 s, tAC = 8.56 s

As the instant shown, cars A and B are traveling at speeds of 20 mi/h and 45 mi/h, respectively. If B is acceleration at 1600 mi/h2 while A maintains a constant speed, determine the magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of A with respect to B.

vA/B = 33.9 mi/h, aA/B = 1600 mi/h2

vA/B = 60.8 mi/h, aA/B = 1600 mi/h2

vA/B = 33.9 mi/h, aA/B = 1426 mi/h2

vA/B = 60.8 mi/h, aA/B = 1426 mi/h2

A boy throws a snowball such that it strikes the wall of the building at the maximum height of its trajectory. If it takes t = 1.5 s to travel from A to B, determine the velocity vA at which it was thrown, the angle of release , and the height h.

vA = 12.00 ft/s, = 24.4E, h = 21.7 ft

vA = 49.8 ft/s, = 76.0E, h = 39.7 ft

vA = 36.3 ft/s, = 24.4E, h = 18.2 ft

vA = 48.3 ft/s, = 65.6E, h = 39.7 ft

For a short time the missile moves along the parabolic path y = (18 - 2x2) km. If motion along the ground is measured as x = (4t - 3) km, where t is in seconds, determine the magnitudes of the missile's velocity and acceleration when t = 1 s.

v = 5.66 km/s, a = 4.0 km/s2

v = 16.49 km/s, a = 64.0 km/s2

v = 16.00 km/s, a = 22.6 km/s2

v = 4.00 km/s, a = 16.03 km/s2

A chain that has a negligible mass is draped over a sprocket which has a mass of 2 kg and a radius of gyration of kO = 50 mm. If the 4-kg block A is released from rest in the position shown, s = 1 m, determine the angular velocity which the chain imparts th the sprocket when s = 2 m.

44.3 rad/s

39.6 rad/s

41.8 rad/s

59.1 rad/s

The 50-kg cylinder has an angular velocity of 30 rad/s when it is brought into contact with the horizontal surface at C. If the coefficient of friction is c = 0.2, determine how long it takes for the cylinder to stop spinning. What force is developed at the pin A during this time? The axis of the cylinder is connected to two symmetrical links. (Only AB is shown.) For the computation, neglect the weight of the links.

t = 1.529 s, A = 0

t = 3.06 s, A = 0

t = 1.529 s, A = 49.1 N

t = 3.06 s, A = 49.1 N

The uniform pole has a mass of 15 kg and falls from rest when = 90° until it strikes the edge at A, = 60°. If the pole then begins to pivot about this point after contact, determine the pole's angular velocity just after the impact. Assume that the pole does not slip at B as it falls until it strikes A.

angular velocity = 1.146 rad/s

angular velocity = 0.537 rad/s

angular velocity = 2.15 rad/s

angular velocity = 1.528 rad/s

A cord of negligible mass is wrapped around the outer surface of the 2-kg disk. If the disk is released from rest, determine its angular velocity in 3 s.

183.9 rad/s

735 rad/s

245 rad/s

263 rad/s

The irregular area has a moment of inertia about the AA axis of 35 (106) mm4. If the total area is 12.0(103) mm2, determine the moment of inertia if the area about the BB axis. The DD axis passes through the centroid C of the area.

IBB = 5.00(106 ) mm4

IBB = 17.00(106 ) mm4

IBB = 16.80(106 ) mm4

IBB = 55.4(106 ) mm4

The slender 200-kg beam is suspended by a cable at its end as shown. If a man pushes on its other end with a horizontal force of 30 N, determine the initial acceleration of its mass center G, the beam's angular acceleration, and the tension in the cable AB.

aG = 0, = 0.225 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN

aG = 0.0750 m/s2, = 0.1125 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN

aG = 0, = 0.1125 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN

aG = 0.1500 m/s2, = 0.225 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN

The radial distance of a tooth from pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is called

dedundum

addendum

clearance

working depth

The module is reciprocal of

diametrical pitch

circular pitch

pitch diameter

pressure angle

The condition for correct gearing is

pitch line velocities of teeth be same

radius of curvature of two profile be same

common normal to the pitch surface cuts the line of centres at a fixed point

pitch line velocities of teeth different

Interference can be avoided in involute gears with 20 degree pressure angle by

cutting involute correctly

using as small number of teeth as possible

using more than 20 teeth

using more than 8 teeth

In simple gear train, if the number of idle gears is odd, then the motion of driven gear will

be same as that of driving gear

be opposite as that of driving gear

depend upon the number of teeth on the driving gear

depend upon the number of teeth on the driven gear

The train value of gear is

equal to velocity ration of a gear train

reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train

always greater that unity

always less than unity

In a gear train, when the axes of the shafts, over which the gears are mounted, move relative to a fixed axis is called

epicyclic gear train

reverted gear train

compound gear train

simple gear train

A differential gear in automobile is used to

reduce the speed

assist in changing in speed

provide jerk free movement of vehicle

help in turning

The angle between the direction of the follower motion and a normal to the pitch curve is called

pitch angle

prime angle

base angle

pressure angle

The following is not included in title block of drawing sheet.

1.Sheet No 2.Scale 3.Method of Projection 4.

Size of sheet

Which of the following represent reducing scale?

1.1:1 2.1:2 3.2:1 4.10:1

In first angle projection method, object is assumed to be placed in

1.First quadrant 2.Second quadrant 3.Third quadrant 4.Fourth quadrant

Metric thread of 10mm diameter is represented by

1.10M 2.M10 3.M^10 4.None of the above

This is the term for the range of tightness or looseness resulting from the allowances and tolerances in mating parts

1.Limits

2.Fits

3.Specifications

4.Allowances

In a radial cam, the follower moves

in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis

in a direction parallel to cam axis

in any direction irrespective of the cam axis

along the cam axis

This means that a feature of a finished product contains the maximum amount of material permitted by the toleranced dimensions for that feature:

Maximum material condition

Machined material condition

Maximum machined indication

Machine mark indication

A radial follower is one

That reciprocates in the guides

that oscillates

in which the follower translates along an axis passing through the cam centre of rotation

translates

This is the theoretically exact size from which limits of size are determined:

Actual Size

Dimensioned size

Production size

Basic size

offset is provided to a cam follower mechanism to

minimise the side thrust

accelerate

avoid jerk

reduced the noise

Acceptable parts must not extend beyond this:

Boundary limits

2.Hole limits 3.

Specification

Tolerances

This practice considers an individual part's dimensions and tolerances and that part's relation to its related parts:

Applying allowances

Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing

Creating datum references

Angular dimensioning tolerances

These weld symbols have no arrow-side or other-side significance:

Projection or seam weld

Back or backing weld

Surface or groove weld

Flash and upset weld

Welding drawings are a special type of this kind of drawing:

Symbol

Perspective

Assembly

Isometric

For a low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with

uniform velocity

simple harmonic motion

uniform acceleration and retardation

cycloidal motion

The typical parts list should include the

part number

manufacturing material

number of parts needed

all of the above

For high speed engines, the cam and follower should move with

uniform velocity

simple harmonic motion

uniform acceleration and retardation

cycloidal motion

The title block used on working drawings should include the

sheet number

line type

layer set

all of the above

The text used on a typical detail sheet should be

placed horizontally

in bold text

in an architectural text style

none of the above

In an exploded assembly drawing it is customary for the drafter to use a line to illustrate how parts fit together.

Phantom

hidden

dashed

center

which of the following displacement diagrams should be chosen for better dynamic performance of cam follower motion

simple harmonic motion

parabolic motion

cycloidal motion

tangent

It is customary for the first sheet of a working drawing set to include

a parts list

exploded assembly

assembled assembly

4.all of the above

The thread note for a typical bolt will include the

1.major diameter of the thread

2.material

3.center line

4.offset distance

A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relative motion between the linkage is completely constrained is called as

structure

mechanism

kinematic chain

inversion

The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degree of freedom is equal to

-1

In a four bar chain or quadric cycle

each of the four pairs is turning pair

one is a turning pair and three sliding pairs

three are turning pairs and one is sliding pair

all are sliding pairs

This is a conical-shaped recess around a hole, often used to receive a tapered screw head:

Boss

Spotface

Counterbore

Countersink

This is an angled surface used on cylinders to make them easier to handle:

Fillet

Taper

Chamfer

Lug

These are used to attach parts to a cylinder so they won't turn on it:

Lugs and bearings

Keyseats and bearings

Knurls and keys

Keys and keyways/keyseats

This is a flat or rounded tab protruding from a surface, usually to provide a method for attachment:

Lug

2.Boss 3.

Chamfer

Spotface

This is a hollow cylinder that is often used as a protective sleeve or guide or as a bearing:

Lug

2.Bushing 3.

Chamfer

Knurl

This is a rounded exterior blend between surfaces:

Fillet

Round

Taper

Chamfer

The total number of instantaneous centres for a mechanism consisting of n links are

n/2

(n-1)/2

[n(n-1)]/2

The instantaneous centres which vary with the configuration of the mechanism are called

permanent instantaneous centres

fixed instantaneous centres

neither fixed nor permanent instantaneous centres

flexible instantaneous centres

The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having parallel teeth to the axis of the shaft. the arrangement is called

spur gearing

helical gearing

bevel gearing

spiral gearing

An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the same motion as the actual gear is called

addendum circle

dedendum circle

pitch circle

clearance circle

which of the following is incorrect relationship for gears

circular pitch X diametral pitch = 3.14

module = pcd/No of teeth

dedundum = 1.157 module

addendum = 2.157 module

Cam size depends on

1. base circle

2. prime circle

3. outer circle

4. pitch circle

The maximum value of pressure angle in case of cam is kept as

1. 10 degree

2. 20 degree

3. 14 degree

4. 30 degree

Consider the following pairs
1. pair of gear in mesh
2. belt and pulley
3. cylinder and pistonn
4. cam and follower
Among these, the higher pairs are

1. 1,2 and 4

2. 1,2 and 3

3. 2 and 4

4. 1 and 4

A cam mechanism imparts following motion

1. ocsillating

2. reciprocating

3. rotating

4. all of these options

The contact ratio for gear is

1. 0

2. 1

3. less than 1

4. more than 1

Module of a gear is ( T- number of teeth; D-Diameter of the gear)

1. T/D

2. 2D/T

3. 2T/D

4. D/T

The type of gears used to connect two non parallel and non intersecting shafts is

1. Helical gear

2. Bevel gear

3. Spur gear

4. Spiral gear

Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the

1. velocity

2. centrepetal component of accelration with length of link

3. tangential component of accelration with length of link

4. resultant with link length

The Kutzbach criterion for determining the number of degrees of freedom (n) is (where l = number of links, j = number of joints and h = number of higher pairs)

1. n = 3(l-1)-3j-h

2. n = 2(l-1)-3j-h

3. n = 3(l-1)-2j-h

4. n = 2(l-1)-2j-h

Any point on a link connecting double slider chain will trace a

1. straight line

2. circle

3. parabola

4. ellipse

The coriolis component of acceleration leads the sliding velocity by

1. 45°

2. 180°

3. 90°

4. 135°

which of the gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in small space?

1. reverted gear train

2. epicyiclic gear train

3. compound gear train

4. simple gear train

In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.

1.none of these options 2.equal to 3.less than 4.greater than

In order to draw the acceleration diagram, it is necessary to determine the
Coriolis component of acceleration in the case of

1. pantograph

2. crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism

3. four bar mechanism

4. slider-crank mechanism

which of the gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in small space?

1. reverted gear train

2. epicyiclic gear train

3. compound gear train

4. simple gear train

A term used to describe the concept of perfect form at MMC is

datum reference frame

the envelope principle

departure from MMC

None of the above

Which of the following is descriptive of the datum reference frame?

six degrees of freedom

located based on the functionality of the part

three orthogonal planes

all of the above

A vast majority of functional gages are made to check _________ tolerances

position

runout

circularity

flatness

The single most valuable, flexible, and versatile geometric control is

concentricity

position

perpendicularity

straightness

In establishing datums and datum features the bottom surface of a part is called the ___________ and the surface plate is called the ____________.

datum, datum feature

datum feature, datum

datum control, datum feature

none of the above

Maximum material condition (MMC) is the condition with which a part will

weigh the least

weigh the most

have the straightest and flattest elements

have its largest allowable tolerance

For practical purposes, any inspection instrument will be considered as "perfect" if it is at least _______ more accurate than the part being measured.

5 times

10 times

50 times

100 times

The most useful secondary datum feature can be

a hole that is perpendicular to the primary datum

a set of straight parallel grooves.

circular features parallel to the primary datum

any flat feature perpendicular to the primary datum

The number of variables used in locating a part in space are referred to as

three degrees of freedom

four degrees of freedom

six degrees of freedom

eight degrees of freedom

All geometric form controls are variations and combinations of

straightness

cylindricity

flatness

roundness

Which symbol is used to indicate a dimension refers to the diameter of a hole?

Which symbol is used with angular dimensions?

In _________________ dimensioning, a datum is established for each Cartesian coordinate direction.

baseline

symmetric

hole basis

none of the above

In current ANSI/ASME standards, a _____________ is indicated by a 'V' shaped symbol

counterbore

datum surface

countersink

drill

A limited length or area (such as a polished end of shaft) is indicated with a _____________ line.

hidden

Chain

Section

Dimension

As per standards, a blind hole dimension would have to contain which designation?

THRU

C'BORE

CSK

As per standards, a clearance hole dimension would have to contain which designation?

THRU

C'BORE

CSK

The _________________ of an external feature is the upper limit.

maximum material condition

runnout

minimum material condition

allowance

The _________________ of an internal feature is the upper limit.

maximum material condition

runnout

minimum material condition

allowance

The total amount a dimension may vary and is the difference between the maximum and minimum limits is called _______

tolerance

limits

fit

offset

The type of fit that occurs when two toleranced mating parts are sometimes an interference fit and sometimes a clearance fit when assembled.

intervention fit

clearance fit

transition fit

geometric fit

A titleblock contains all of the following information, except:

name and address of the company

parts list

drawing sheet size letter designation

drawing number

An assembly drawing normally consists of all of the following pieces, except:

parts drawn in their operating position

detail numbers of the parts

engineering change orders

bill of materials

Which fastening method uses the shape of the components to hold them together.

mechanical fastening

bonding

forming

none of the above

What is the tool used to form external threads?

crest

die

chamfer

tap

What defines the distance a screw will travel when rotated 360 degrees?

crest

root

pitch

lead

All of the following are part of the English thread specification, except:

thread form

major diameter

tap drill

class of fit

All of the following are part of a metric thread specification, except:

general purpose tolerance

pitch

nominal size

thread series

Which type of threaded fastener was designed to prevent rotation between parts?

bolt

set screw

stud

cap screw

All of the following are part of the basic weld symbol, except:

weld temperature

leader line and arrow

dimensions

tail

When constructing an assembly model using 3-D solid modeling software, the assembly model normally begins with

1.a feature

2.an instance

3.a sub component

4.a base component

In solid modeling software, defining the geometric relations between components in a 3-D assembly model is primarily done with ____________ and ___________ tools.

feature & coordinate plane

mate & align

instance & component

parallel & perpendicular

What is Maximum Material Condition for Hole and Pin ?

0.515, 0.500

0.500,0.515

0.515,0.495

0.540,0.495

What is the LMC for Hole and Pin ?

0.515, 0.495

0.540, 0.495

0.515, 0.500

0.495, 0.540

What is the geometric tolerance for Hole and Pin ?

0.1, 0.05

0.01, 0.005

0.005,0.01

0.1,0.5

What material condition modifier is specified in the above figure for Hole and Pin ?

MMC, LMC

2.LMC, MMC 3.MMC, MMC 4.

LMC, LMC

What datum feature(s) control(s) perpendicularity for Hole and Pin ?

A,B

A,A

B,B

None of the above

What datum feature(s) control(s) location for Hole and Pin ?

B&C, B&C

A&C, B&C

B&C, A&C

A&C,A&C

Conventional representation of Aluminium and its alloys are illustrated as

Conventional representation of Lead, Zinc, Tin are illustrated as

Conventional representation of cork, linoleum are illustrated as

Conventional representation of a mixture of cement, sand and gravel is illustrated as

What is the conventional representation of the figure shown in figure below.

None of the above

What is the conventional representation of the figure shown in figure below

What is the conventional representation of spur gear?

This type of section is limited by a break line:

Removed section

Revolved section

Broken-out section

Half section

If a client of yours is having difficulty visualizing a design, what type of drawing would be the easiest to understand?

axonometric

three-view orthographic

one-view orthographic

bimetric

Which of the following is not a pictorial drawing?

isometric

multiview

perspective

axonometric

A typical set of mechanical working drawings includes

exploded assembly

part details

3.parts list 4.

all the above

In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of

1. studs

2. bolts and nuts

3. headless taper bolts

4. none of these options.

A transmission shaft includes

1. over head shaft

2. line shaft

3.counter shaft

4.all of these options

Slenderness ratio is the ratio of

1. maximum size of column to minimum size of column

2. width of column to depth of column

3. effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column

4. effective length of column to width of column

Each screen point is referred to as .........................

Resolution

Pixel

Persistence

Dot Pitch

Which of the following line algorithms used integer only arithmetic to rasterize lines?

Bresenham’s Line Algorithm

DDA Line Algorithm

FFTW Line Algorithm

All the answer

The purpose of refreshing a CRT is ..........................

To avoid flickering

To maintain steady picture

To avoid fading of pixels

All the answer

Which of the following is not an object-space hidden surface removal algorithm?

Back-Face Culling

Depth Buffer

Painter’s Algorithm

All the answer

The main function of CAD is

1. Documentation

2. Curing

3. Marketing

4. Manufacturing

CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________.

1. colouring

2. size and shape of the model features

3. perspective of the model

4. shading used to render the model

During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be

1. linear Interpolation

2. circular Interpolation - counter clockwise

3. circular Interpolation – clockwise

4. rapid feed

The default position of the UCS icon is positioned at ________ on the AutoCAD grid.

1. 0,0,0

2. 10,10,10

3. 20,20,20

4. -10,-10,-10

CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________.

1. colouring

2. size and shape of the model features

3. perspective of the model

4. shading used to render the model

The advantage of implementing CAD is to

1. Expertise in the area of data base manufacturing management

2. Increase productivity

3. Improve communication

4. Increase quality of design

In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control

1. spindle speed

2. table velocity

3. spindle position

4. coolant flow

Interpolation in the controller refers to control of which one of the following in a CNC machine?

1. Loading/unloading of jobs on machine

2. Axes of machine for contouring

3. Coolant and miscellaneous functions on machine

4. Loading/unloading of tools from the tool changer

Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by

synchronous motors

2. induction motors

3. stepper motors

4. servo-motors.

During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be

1. linear Interpolation

2. circular Interpolation - counter clockwise

3. circular Interpolation – clockwise

4. rapid feed

The basic transformations include

Translation

Rotation

Scaling

All the answer

The transformation in which an object is moved in a minimum distance path from one position to another is called

Rotation

Replacement

Translation

Scaling

Forming products of transformation matrices is often referred as

Concatenation

Composition

both a&b

only a

The .............. combines the volumes occupied by overlapping 3D objects using set operations

CSG method

B-rep method

Sweep representation

All the answer

................... is created by revolution of a circle about an axis lying in its plane.

Sphere

Ellipsoid

Torus

Cylinder

The point about which an object is rotated is called ...................

Fixed point

Central point

Pivot point

None

A surface of revolution is generated by a .................. of a 2D curve.

Translational sweep

Rotational sweep

union

intersection

Identify line clipping algorithms from the following

Cohen- Sutherland algorithm

Liang-Barsky clipping

Nicholl-Lee-Nicholl clipping

All the answer

The transformation in which the dimension of an object are changed relative to a specified fixed point is called

Rotation

Reflection

Translation

Scaling

With incremental tool positioning, ____.

each tool movement is made with reference to the last tool position

all tool movement is measured from a fixed point or origin

all tool movement is measured from a zero point

No tool Movement

By using CIM to control all phases of manufacturing, firms hope to reap what benefits?

Increased productivity

Improved quality

Enhanced flexibility

All of the answer

Which type of model is likely to be created with a rapid prototyping system?

Mathematical model

Wireframe model

Surface model

Scale model

Which of the following process technologies is associated with low volume and high variety?

Flexible manufacturing systems

Dedicated systems

Flexible transfer lines

Computer numerically controlled machines

What is the name of a system which brings together several technologies into a coherent system?

Focused integration systems

Portable manufacturing systems

Flexible manufacturing systems

Automated integration systems

Which of the following is not true of computer numerically controlled (CNC) machines?

They can ‘learn’ from process errors.

They can eliminate operator error.

They can give better productivity to the process.

They give more accuracy and precision to the process.

What do Flexible Manufacturing systems (FMS) do?

Moves and manipulates products, parts or tolls

Co-ordinates the whole process of manufacturing and manufactures a part, component or product

Moves materials between operations

Completely manufactures a range of components without significant human intervention during the processing

A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any relative motion between the journal and the bearing is called

Zero film bearing

boundary lubricated bearing

Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing

hydrostatic lubricated bearing

In a boundary lubricated bearing, there is a ................ of lubricant between the journal and the bearing

Thick film

thin film

zero film

solid film

When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and heavy impacts, the bearing characteristic number should be ............... the bearing modulus.

5 times

10 times

15 times

20 times

If Z = Absolute viscosity of the lubricant in kg/m-s, N = Speed of the journal in r.p.m., and p =Bearing pressure in N/mm², then the bearing characteristic number is

Zp/n

Zn/p

Z/pn

pn/Z

The ball bearings are usually made from

Low carbon steel

medium carbon steel

high speed steel

chrome nickel steel

In radial bearings, the load acts

Along the axis of rotation

parallel to the axis of rotation

Perpendicular to the axis of rotation

in any direction

When the length of the journal is less than the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is said to be a

short bearing

long bearing

square bearing

The angular contact ball bearing can be used for

Radial load only

axial load only

both radial and axial loads

to adjust for misalignments

A bearing is designated by the number 305. It means that a bearing is of

Light series with bore of 25 mm

medium series with bore of 25 mm

Heavy series with bore of 25 mm

extra light series with width of 25 mm

The spherical roller bearing can be used for

Radial load only

axial load only

both radial and axial loads

to adjust for misalignments

If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is increased, then the pressure angle

increases

decreases

remains unchanged

none of these

Lewis equation in spur gears is applied

only to the pinion

only to the gear

to stronger of the pinion or gear

to weaker of the pinion or gear

In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the pitch cylinders normal to the teeth, is called

normal pitch

axial pitch

diametral pitch

module

The root angle of a bevel gear is equal to

pitch angle – addendum angle

pitch angle + addendum angle

pitch angle – dedendum angle

pitch angle + dedendum angle

The contact ratio for gears is

zero

less than one

greater than one

none of these

The allowable static stress for steel gears is approximately __________of the ultimate tensile stress.

one-fourth

one-third

one-half

double

When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angles connect two shafts whose axes intersect at right angle, then they are known as

angular bevel gears

crown bevel gears

internal bevel gears

mitre gears

When the spiral angle of a bevel gear is zero, it is called as_________

crown gear

zerol bevel gear

meter gear

spiral bevel gear

The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate small particles of dust, grit etc., without scoring the material of the journal, is called

bondability

embeddability

comformability

fatigue strength

The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have ............ coefficient of friction.

low

high

medium

zero

In case of a multiple disc clutch, if n₁ are the number of discs on the driving shaft and n₂ are the number of the discs on the driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contact surfaces will be

n₁ + n₂

n₁ + n₂ – 1

n₁ + n₂ + 1

none of these

The cone clutches have become obsolete because of

small cone angles

exposure to dirt and dust

difficulty in disengaging

all of these

A jaw clutch is essentially a

positive action clutch

cone clutch

friction clutch

disc clutch

Total slip will occur in a belt drive when

angle of rest is zero

angle of creep is greater than angle of rest

angle of rest is greater than angle of creep

angle of creep is zero

The basic load rating of a ball bearing is

the maximum static radial load that can be applied without causing any plastic deformation of bearing components.

the radial load at which 90% of the group of apparently identical bearings run for one million revolutions before the first evidence of failure.

the maximum radial load that can be applied during operation without any plastic deformation of bearing components.

a combination of radial and axial loads that can be applied without any plastic deformation.

The difference between tensions on the tight and slack sides of a belt drive is 3000 N. if the belt speed is 15 m/s, the transmitted power in kW is

22.5

100

The ratio of tension on the tight side to that on the slack side in a flat belt drive is

proportional to the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle

an exponential function of the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle

proportional to the lap angle

proportional to the coefficient of friction

A 1.5 kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min, it is to be connected to a stirrer running at 36 rev/min. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is

Differential gear

helical gear

spur gear

worm gear

The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as

Elasticity

endurance

strength

toughness

If a load W is applied instantaneously on a bar, then the stress induced in bar will

Be independent of ration of mass of load W to mass of bar (γ)

increase with increase in γ

decrease with decrease in γ

4.dependent on other considerations

If a material fails below its yield point, failure would be due to

Straining

fatigue

creep

impact loading

In testing a material for endurance strength, it is subjected to

Static load

dynamic load

impact load

completely reversed load

Guest’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

Brittle

ductile

elastic

plastic.

With the percentage increase of carbon in steel

Strength of steel decreases

hardness of steel decrease

brittleness of steel decrease

ductility of steel decrease

The maximum percentage of carbon content in cast iron is _________________.

6.67%

4.8 %

In most machine members, the damping capacity of the material should be

Low

zero

high

could be anything

Stress concentration is caused due to

variation in properties of material from point to point in a member

2.areas at which loads on a member are applied 3.

Abrupt change of section

all of the above.

Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to

Fatigue

thermal stress

wear and tear

shock loading.

Factor of safety is the ratio of

Yield stress / working stress

tensile stress / working stress

compressive stress / working stress

bearing stress / working stress.

Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as

Creep

fatigue

endurance

Plastic deformation

Two solid circular shafts of radii R1 and R2 are subjected to same torque. The maximum shear stresses developed in the two shafts are 1 t and 2 t . If R1/ R2=2, then 2 t / 1 t is _______.

A solid circular shaft of 60 mm diameter transmits a torque of 1600 N.m. The value of maximum shear stress developed is

37.72 MPa

47.72 MPa

57.72 MPa

67.72 MPa

A solid shaft of diameter, d length and length L is fixed at both ends. Aa torque, T₀ is applied at a distance L/4 from the left end. The maximum shear stress in the shaft is

16T_o/ πd³

12T_o/ πd³

8T_o/ πd³

4T_o/ πd³

A solid circular shaft needs to be designed to transmit a torque of 50 Nm. If the allowable shear stress of the material is 140 MPa, assuming a factor of safety of 2, the minimum allowable design diameter in mm is

8 mm

16 mm

24 mm

32 mm

The piston rod and the crosshead in a steam engine are usually connected by means of

Cotter joint

Knuckle joint

Ball joint

Universal joint

Square key of side "d/4" each and length l is used to transmit torque "T" from the shaft of diameter "d" to the hub of a pulley. Assuming the length of the key to be equal to the thickness of the pulley, the average shear stress developed in the key is given by

4T/Id

16T/Id ²

16T/Id ³

A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries a steady load of 15 kN along the weld. The shear strength of the weld material is equal to 200 MPa. The factor of safety is

2.4

3.4

4.8

6.8

In a gib and cotter joint, the gib and cotter are subjected to

Single s hear only

an axial tensile as well as compressive load

The bending moment only

only compressive axial load

A spur gear transmitting power is connected to the shaft w ith a key of rectangular section. The type (s) of stresses developed in the key is fare.

Shear stress alone

bearing stress alone

Both shear and bearing stresses

shearing, bearing and bending stresses .

In a fillet welded joint, the weakest area of the weld is

Toe

root

throat

face

A double fillet welded joint with parallel fillet weld of length L and leg B is subjected to a tensile force P. Assuming uniform stress distribution, the shear stress in the weld is given by

2P/ B.L

P/3.B.L

P/2.B.L

3P/ B.L

The bolts in a rigid flanged coupling connecting two shafts transmitting power are subjected to

Shear force and bending moment

axial force

Torsion and bending moment

torsion

A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of friction of liner material 0.4, the torque carrying capacity of the clutch is

148 Nm

196 Nm

372 Nm

490 Nm

Total slip will Occur in a belt drive when

Angle of rest is zero

Angle of creep is zero

Angle of rest is greater than angle of creep

Angle of creep is greater than angle of rest

Which one of the following is not a friction clutch?

Disc or plate clutch

Cone clutch

Centrifugal clutch

Jaw clutch

Which one of the following belts should not be used above 40°C?

Balata belt

Rubber belt

Fabric belt

Synthetic belt

Which type of gear is used for shaft axes having an offset?

Mitre gears

Spiral bevel gears

Hypoid gears

Zerol gears

When two shafts are neither parallel nor intersecting, power can be transmitted by using

A pair of spur gears

a pair of helical gears

An Oldham's coupling

a pair of spiral gears

In the formulation of Lewis equation for toothed gearing, it is assumed that tangential tooth load F_t, acts on the

Pitch point

tip of the tooth

Root of the tooth

whole face of the tooth

If reduction ratio of about 50 is required in a gear drive, then the most appropriate gearing would be

spur gears

bevel gears

Double helical gears

worm and worm wheel

The shearing area of a key of length 'L', breadth 'b' and depth 'h' is equal to

b x h

Lx h

Lx b

Lx (h/2)

Consider the following statements:

A splined shaft is used for

1. Transmitting power

2. Holding a flywheel rigidly in position

3. Moving axially the gear wheels mounted on it

4. Mounting V-belt pulleys on it.

Of these statements

2 and 3 are correct

1 and 4 are correct

2 and 4 are correct

1 and 3 are correct

In the welded joint shown in the given figure, if the weld at B has thicker fillets than that at A, then the load carrying capacity P, of the joint will

increase

decrease

remain unaffected

exactly get doubled

Which of the following stresses are associated with the design of pins in bushed pin-type flexible coupling?

1. Bearing stress 2. Bending stress

3. Axial tensile stress 4. Transverse shear stress

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1, 3 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 4

The angle of twist for a transmission shaft is inversely proportional to

Shaft diameter

(Shaft diameter)²

(Shaft diameter)³

(Shaft diameter)⁴

A muff coupling is

rigid coupling

flexible coupling

shock absorbing coupling

none of these

The maximum shear stress in the spring is induced at

inner surface of the coil

outer surface of the coil

central surface of the coil

end coils

When a helical spring is cut into two halves, the stiffness of each spring will be

same as original spring

double of original spring

half of original spring

one fourth of original spring

Fatigue failure results due to fluctuating stresses when the stress magnitude is

more than ultimate tensile strength

more than yield strength but lower than the ultimate tensile strength

lower than yield strength

none of these

Rankine theory of failure is applicable to

ductile materials

elastic materials

brittle materials

plastic materials

Distortion energy theory of failure is applicable to

component made of plain carbon steel

component made of composites

component made of cast iron

component made of non-metals

Griffith’s law states that fracture strength brittle material is

directly proportional to the square root of the crack length

inversely proportional to the square root of the crack length

directly proportional to the square of the crack length

inversely proportional to the square of the crack length

Flat head rivets are used in

ship hulls

light sheet metal work

structural work

air conditioning ducts

Maximum shear stress theory is used for

cast iron shafts

steel shafts

flexible shafts

plastic shafts

Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to

Fatigue

thermal stress

wear and tear

shock loading

Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in

Ductile materials

brittle materials

equally serious in both cases

unpredictable

Bushed pin flexible coupling is used to joint two shafts which

have lateral misalignment.

whose axes intersect at a small angle

are not in exact alignment

all of the above

The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a

thin vessel.

solid shaft.

hollow shaft.

continuous shaft.

Following type of pipe joint is mostly used for pipes carrying water at low pressures

socket.

union.

spigot and socket.

sleeve and cotter.

For two parallel shafts, the distance between whose axes is small and variable, which coupling will you use?

hydraulic coupling

universal coupling

flange coupling

oldham’s coupling.

The trap end of the a connecting rod of steam engine is joined by

gib of cotter joint

sleeve and cotter joint

knuckle joint

universal joint

Which of the following pipe joints would be suitable for pipes carrying steam

flanged

threaded

bell & spigot

expansion joint

Universal coupling is used to join two shafts

have lateral misalignment.

whose axes intersect at a small angle

are not in exact alignment.

all of the above

The most important dimension in the design of nut is

outside diameter of nut

inside diameter

height

pitch diameter.

The valve rod in a steam engine is connected to an eccentric rod by

cotter joint

bolted joint

knuckle joint

universal coupling

Strain energy is the

energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits

The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint

1.free from corrosion

2.stronger in tension

3.free from stresses

leak-proof

A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15° C to 40° C and it is free to expand. The bar Will induce

1.no stress

2.shear stress

3.tensile stress

4.compressive stress

A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be

400 MPa

2.500 MPa

3.900 MPa

4.1400 MPa

A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1000 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 500 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 250 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be

1000 MPa

1100 MPa

1200 MPa

1300 MPa

A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1000 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of -1000 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to no shear stress on any planes. The maximum shear stress will be

250 MPa

500 MPa

750 MPa

1000 MPa

Which of the following operating systems is used with CAD systems?

1. LINUX

2. all the answers

3. UNIX

4. DOS

CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________.

1. colouring

2. size and shape of the model features

3. perspective of the model

4. shading used to render the model

CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________.

1. colouring

2. size and shape of the model features

3. perspective of the model

4. shading used to render the model

Which of the following operating systems is used with CAD systems?

1. LINUX

2. all the answers

3. UNIX

4. DOS

With incremental tool positioning, ____.

each tool movement is made with reference to the last tool position

all tool movement is measured from a fixed point or origin

all tool movement is measured from a zero point

No tool Movement

The point-to-point NC movement system ____.

permits controlled tool travel along one axis at a time

is used for operations performed at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position

precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes

All the answers

A straight-cut system ____.

permits controlled tool travel along one axis at a time

is used for operations performed at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position

precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes

permits controlled tool travel along three axis at a time

When the contour or continuous path system is used, ____.

tool travel is controlled along one axis at a time

machine and tool movements are precisely controlled at all times and in all planes

tool movement from one point to the next does not have to follow a specific path

No movement of tool

With contour or continuous path NC movement system, ____.

cutter size and other variables must be considered when the program is prepared

cutter location is monitored continuously

cutting is continuous and can be in six axes simultaneously

All of the answers

In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be

(7.5, 5)

(10, 5)

(7.5, -5)

(10, -5)

During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be

Circular Interpolation - clockwise

Circular Interpolation - counterclockwise

Linear Interpolation

Rapid feed

The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by:

Control points

Knots

End points

All of the answers

The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors:

Increases with knot vectors

Decreases with knot vectors

Remains constant

No influence with knot vectors

IGES stands for

Initial Graphics Exchange System

Initial Graphics Exchange Software

Initial Graphic Exchange Solution

Initial Graphics Exchange Specification

Group technology and CAPP are the activities of

Computer Aided Engineering

Computer Aided Manufacturing

Computer Integrated Manufacturing

Flexible manufacturing

B-Rep is a methods of ____________

Solid modeling

Surface modeling

Wire frame modeling

2D modeling

The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10,10) whileperforming an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?

N010G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

N010G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

N010G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

N010G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

What are the main components of an NC machine?

1. Part program 2. Machine Control Unit 3. Servo meter

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT language?

1. only capital letters are used 2. A period is placed at the end of each statement 3. Insertion of space does not affect the APT word

1 and 2

2 and 3

1and 3

1 alone

Which of the following are valid statements for point to point motion of the tool in APT language?

1. GOTO/............ 2. GO DLTA/............ 3. GO/TO, ……….

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

1, 2 and 3

The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the stress induced when the same load is applied gradually.

1.equal to

one-half

3.twice

4.four times

The bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic __________ of all the moments on either side of the point.

sum

difference

multiplication

division

The deformation per unit length is called

1.tensile stress

2.compressive stress

3.shear stress

4.strain

A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is

Strain resetters are used to

1.measure shear strain

2.measure linear strain

3.measure volumetric strain

relieve strain

The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where τ = Maximum allowable shear stress)

x τ x D³

When a rectangular cantilever beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is developed on the

1.top layer

2.bottom layer

3.neutral axis

4.every cross-section

When a rectangular simply supported beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is developed on the

1.every cross-section

2.bottom layer

3.neutral axis

4.top layer

When a rectangular cantilever beam is loaded transversely, the maximum tensile stress is developed on the

1.top layer

2.bottom layer

3.neutral axis

4.every cross-section

When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the member is

1. zero at the centroidal axis and maximum at the outer surface of the member

2. maximum at the centroidal axis and zero at the outer surface of the member

3. maximum at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member

4. zero at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member

A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal torque (T) and bending moment (M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue factor for bending is 1.5 and combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the equivalent twisting moment for the shaft is

1.2050 N-m 2.2136 N-m 3.2000 N-m 4.2100 N-m

The value of stress concentration factor depends upon

1. material of the part

2. geometry of the part

3. material and geometry of the part

4. none of these options

Stress concentration is caused due to

1. abrupt change of cross-section

2. variations in properties of materials in a member

3. variations in load acting on a member

4. all of these options

When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the member is

1. zero at the centroidal axis and maximum at the outer surface of the member

2. maximum at the centroidal axis and zero at the outer surface of the member

3. maximum at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member

4. zero at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member

The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without suffering permanent distortion, is known as

1. impact energy

2. modulus of resilience

3. proof resilience

4. proof stress

A rod of length L having uniform cross-sectional area A is subjected to a tensile force P. If the Young’s modulus of the material varies linearly from E1 to E2 (Given that; E1>E2) along the length of the rod, the normal stress developed at the mid section of the beam is

1. [P(E1-E2)]/[A(E1+E2)]

2. PE2/AE1

3. P/A

4. PE1/AE2

The bending stress in a beam is __________ section modulus.

1. directly proportional to

2. not directly proportional to

3. not inversely proportional to

4. inversely proportional to

Two identical circular rods of same diameter and same length are subjected to same magnitude of axial tensile force. One of the rods is made out of mild steel having the modulus of elasticity of 206 GPa. The other rod is made out of cast iron having the modulus of elasticity of 100 GPa. Assume both the materials to be homogeneous and isotropic and the axial force causes the same amount of uniform stress in both the rods. The stresses developed are within the proportional limit of the respective materials. Which of the following observations is correct?

1. As the stresses are equal strains are also equal in both the rods

2. Mild steel rod elongates more than the cast iron rod

3. Both rods elongate by the same amount

4. Cast iron rod elongates more than the mild steel rod

In a sample of water an increase of pressure by 18 MN/m² caused 1% reduction in the volume. The bulk modulus of elasticity of this sample, in MN/m² is

1. 1.8

2. 180

3. 1800

4. 0.18

If the principal stresses in a plane stress problem, are 100MPa, and 40MPa, the magnitude of the maximum shear stress (in MPa) will be

1. 20 MPa

2. 10 MPa

3. 40 MPa

4. 30 MPa

Which of these factors doesn't affect the stress of a wire?

1. diameter

2. load

3. original length

4. cross sectional area

Stress concentration is caused due to

1. variation in properties of material from point to point in a member

2. abrupt change of section

3. pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied

4. all of these

Which of the following is not a basic type of strain?

1. Shear strain

2. Volume strain

3. Compressive strain

4. Area strain

Which bearing is best for space constraint?

1. journal bearing

2. needle bearing

3. roller bearing

4. thrust bearing

A thin cylinder of inner radius 500mm and thickness 10mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 5MPa. The average circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is

1. 750

2. 500

3. 250

4. 1000

A disk clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at 2000 rpm. The disk has a friction lining with coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. Bore radius of friction lining is equal to 25 mm. Assume uniform contact pressure of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction lining is

39.4 mm

49.5 mm

97.9 mm

142.9 mm

When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is __________ at that point.

1. zero

2. minimum

3. maximum

4. infinity

A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively.

Assuming a uniform pressure of 2MPa and coefficient of friction of liner

material is 0.4, the torque carrying capacity of the clutch is

148 N m

196 N m

372 N m

490 N m

The clutch used in scooter is

multi plate clutch

single plate clutch

centrifugal clutch

cone clutch

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II

A. Single-plate friction clutch 1. Scooters

B. Multi-plate friction clutch 2. Rolling mills

C. Centrifugal clutch 3. Trucks

D. Jaw clutch 4. Mopeds

1 3 4 2

1 3 2 4

3 1 2 4

3 1 4 2

The commonly used angle between leather or asbestos friction lining surface and axis of cone clutch for a cone clutch is

14.5

12.5

In a band brake the ratio of tight side band tension to the tension on the

slack side is 3. If the angle of overlap of band on the drum is 180^o, the

coefficient of friction required between drum and the band is

0.20

0.25

0.30

0.35

In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width and drum diameter is kept between

0.1 to 0.25

0.25-0.50

0.50-0.75

0.75-1.0

Fabric belts are used in industrial applications because

they are cheap

they can work at high temperature

they are unaffected by moisture and humidity

none of the above

The power transmitted by the belt drive can be increased by

increasing the initial tension in the belt

dressing the belt to increase the coefficient of friction

increasing wrap angle by using idler pulley

all of the above methods

In a 6×20 wire rope, No.6 indicates the

diameter of the wire rope in mm

Number of strands in the wire rope

Number of wires

Gauge number of the wire

In a flat belt drive the belt can be subjected to a maximum tension T and centrifugal tension Tc . What is the condition for transmission of maximum power?

T=Tc

T=4Tc

T=2Tc

T=3Tc

Interference between the teeth of two meshing involute gears can be reduced or eliminated by

1. Increasing the addendum of the gear teeth and correspondingly reducing the addendum of the pinion.

2. Reducing the pressure angle of the teeth of the meshing gears.

3. Increasing the centre distance

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 only

3 only

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II

A. Undercutting 1. Beam strength

B. Addendum 2. Interference

C. Lewis equation 3. Large speed reduction

D. Worm and wheel 4. Intersecting axes

5. Module

2 5 1 3

1 5 4 3

1 3 4 5

2 3 1 5

The dynamic load capacity of 6306 bearing is 22 kN. The maximum radial load it can sustain to operate at 600 rev/min, for 2000 hours is

4.16 kN

3.60 kN

6.25 kN

5.29 kN

In sliding contact bearings, a positive pressure can be built up and a load supported by a fluid only by the use of a:

Diverging film

Converging-diverging film

Converging film

Flat film

Assertion (A): In hydrodynamic journal bearings, the rotating journal is held in floating condition by the hydrodynamic pressure developed in the lubricant. Reason (R): Lubricant flows in a converging-diverging channel.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

0.048 mm

2. 0.015 mm

3.0.005 mm

4.0.008 mm

What are the upper and lower limits of the shaft represented by 60f8?

Use the following data

Diameter step is 50 - 80mm.

Fundamental tolerance unit i=0.45D^(1/3) + 0.001D, where D is the representative size in mm, Tolerance value for IT8 = 25i,

Fundamental deviation for f shaft = -5.5D^0.41

Upper and lower limits = 59.97mm

LOwer limit = 59.924mm

Upper limit = 60.000mm

Upper limit = 60.046mm

Lower limit = 59.970

None of the answers are correct

What does N, P and L mean in N.P.L. Gauge interferometer?

Nikon pulsed laser

Nuclear plasma laboratory

National Physics Laboratory

Nuclear physics laboratory

Imperial standard yard is made of _____________

Silver

Platinum

Bronze

None of the options are correct

Analytical checking of gears includes checking of ___________________

tooth profile

vibrations

noise level

None of the options are correct

Which formula is used to calculate diametral pitch?

(number of teeth) x (pitch circle diameter)

(pitch circle diameter) / (number of teeth)

(number of teeth) / (pitch circle diameter)

None of the options are correct

According to Taylor's principle which type of gauge checks both size and geometric features?

GO gauge

NOGO gauge

Snap gauge

None of the options are correct

What effect does pitch error have on nut and bolt?

Major diameter of nut decreases and effective diameter of bolt increases

Effective diameter of nut decreases and effective diameter of bolt increases

Effective diameter of nut increases and effective diameter of bolt decreases

4.None of the options are correct

What is ten point height method?

It is the average sum of ten highest points measured within sampling length

It is the average difference of five highest points and five deepest valleys measured within sampling length

It is the sum of ten highest points divided by sum of ten deepest valleys measured within sampling length

None of the options are correct

Which of the following statements is true?

Photocell is used to measure light intensity

Planimeter is used to measure surface roughness

According to Indian Standard 696 roughness valve is to be measured in millimeter

None of the options are correct

Which type of surface in a fringe pattern exhibits the movement of fringes towards the centre?

Convex

Concave

Flat

Circular

At which angle does a glass plate reflector set in N.P.L. interferometer?

45 degrees

90 degrees

35.5 degrees

85.5 degrees

Which type of deviation is observed while calculating hole dimensions?

positive

Negative

Zero

All the options are correct

The snap gauge having go dimension corresponds to _____________

MMC

MMMC

LMC

LMMC

Fill up the blank

Precision

mean value

Reynolds constant 1.4

Systematic error

Find the missing term in the equation which represents the standard tolerance unit.

0.005D

0.001D

0.056D

0.0012D

As the size of a part to be manufactured increases, the tolerance limits within which the part can be manufactured ______________________

increases

decreases

remains unaltered

None of the options are correct

What description of fit suits the vacant box?

Normal running fit

loose fit

tight fit

interference fit

Describe the fit in relation to the following data

1.Slight clearance

No clearance

Slightly tight

none of the options are correct

What type of fit does the following description represent?

Clearance fit

transition fit

Interference fit

wide fit

What is the value of the fundamental tolerance unit"i" for the shaft and hole pair designated by

0.7327micro meter

0.7327milli meter

0.3727micro meter

0.3727milli meter

The figure given below represents the disposition of tolerance zone around the zero line

Find the

Min. Clearance and Max. Clearance

Min. Clearance 24 micrometer and Max. Clearance 4 micrometer

Min. Clearance 24 mm and Max. Clearance 4 mm

Max. Clearance 24 micrometer and Min. Clearance 4 micrometer

Min. Clearance 42 mm and Max. Clearance 24 mm

Internal diameter of any workpiece can be measured using ______

Solex pneumatic comparator

Sigma comparator

Johansson microcator

None of these options

Which among the following is measured using four ball method?

Diameter

Length

angle

radius

Match the following Group 1 items (Type of error) with Group 2 items (characteristics) and select the correct option

1. Gross error ----------------------A. Magnitude and direction vary
2. Systematic error --------------B. Caused by electrostatic fields
3. Random error ------------------C. Human fault
4. Environmental error ----------D. Magnitude and direction are definite

1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

Which of the following is a characteristic of End standard?

accuracy of ± 0.2 mm

the accuracy of ± 0.050 mm

accuracy of ± 0.001 mm

accuracy of ± 1.00 mm

Which ISO standard is used in international automobile companies to set automotive quality system standards ?

ISO 14000

TS 16949

TSISO 9000

None of the options are correct

ISO 14000 quality standard is related with

Eliminating poor quality

Environmental management systems

Automotive quality standards

Customer satisfaction

Which of the following is a contact type of automated inspection method?

Laser scanning

Electric field

Inspection probe

None of the options are correct

Which of the following statements is true?

In three wire method, each flank of a thread is touched by a wire in axial plane section and this is valid only for a thread having rank angle

Compression error is always subtracted from effective diameter value obtained

The value of θ is assumed 30^o while calculating best wire diameter for Whitworth thread

Floating carriage type of micrometer is used for two wire method

Calculate diameter of best wire for a Withworth thread of M 24 x 7 mm size.

3.94mm

4.94mm

2.03mm

8.68mm

Which of the following methods is unreliable to evaluate the surface finish?

Electrical stylus profilometer

Wallace surface dynamometer

Profilograph

Tomlinson surface tester

Which principle does Taylor-Hobson-Talysurf tester work on?

Capacitive demodulating principle

Intensity modulating principle

Inductive modulating principle

Carrier modulating principle

Which type of light source is used in N.P.L. type of flatness interferometer?

Mercury nickel vapour lamp

Cadmium and mercury vapour lamp. It depends on the type of the specimen

Cadmium lamp

Mercury vapour lamp

The closeness of the measured value to the actual value is ________

1.Accuracy 2.Repeatability 3.Sensitivity 4.Precision

Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle

1.between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base 2.by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back 3.between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right angles to the centre line of the point of the tool 4.by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways

A measurement system only includes operators and gauges

1. Always True

2. Can't predict

3. False

4. May be true or false

Precision is related to the accuracy of the measurements

1. Always False

2. May be true or false

3. True

4. can't predict

This is a solid shape that fits inside the mold and forms a hole in a cooled cast metal or molten plastic object:

1. Core

2. Cavity

3. Prototype

4. Hole mold

When a metal is specified as "tough" in the part drawing, the manufacturing engineer should understand that this metal:

1. resists being broken or deformed by mechanical shock forces

2. dulls tools almost immediately

3. does not deform plastically but breaks into pieces when stressed

4. resists grinding

Which of the following is the best engineering plastics material that has high tensile strength, high compressive strength, with minimal elongation to use for a product that will be injection molded?

1. polycarbonate

2. polystyrene

3. phenolic

4. epoxy

The best process for making a kitchen drawer divider tray out of plastic sheets is:

1. pultrusion

2. thermoforming

3. compression forming

4. blow molding

A turning operation is to be done on a piece of alloy steel that has a diameter of 90mm. If the depth of cut is set at 3.175 mm, the feed is set at 0.30 mm per revolution, and the recommended cutting speed using a carbide tool is 90 meters per minute, what rotational speed you will set on the machine, from the following available speeds on machine, in rpm?

1. 218

2. 118

3. 418

4. 318

The purpose of a riser in a mold is

1. to do a function same as the cope while preparing the mold

2. to help raise the mold from the floor while preparing the mold

3. to feed liquid metal into the body of casting as it solidifies

4. to enhance the draft

Emulsified oils which are used in machine shop are

1. lubricating oils diluted with naphta, kerosene or other petroleum-base solvents.

2. mixture of oil and water used for lubricating and cooling

3. oils that have degraded over time

4. high in sulphur content

Chills are used in moulds to

1. reduce the possibility of blow holes

2. achieve directional solidification

3. reduce freezing time

4. smoothen metal flow for reducing splatter

In foundry work, a runner is which one of the following:

1. channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity

2. none of the options

3. vertical channel into which the metal is poured into the mold from a laddle

4. foundryman who moves the hot molten metal from the furnace to the mold

Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following: (a) time between pouring and
complete solidification, (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature, (c) time
between solidification and cooling to room temperature, or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion?

1. (d) time to give up the heat of fusion

2. (c) time between solidification and cooling to room temperature

3. (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature

4. (a)time between pouring and
complete solidification

In a sand-casting mold, the V/A ratio of the riser should be

1. none of these options

2. smaller than the V/A ratio of the casting itself

3. greater than the V/A ratio of the casting itself

4. equal to the V/A ratio of the casting itself

In a sand-casting mold, the V/A ratio of the riser should be

1. none of these options

2. smaller than the V/A ratio of the casting itself

3. greater than the V/A ratio of the casting itself

4. equal to the V/A ratio of the casting itself

In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern is

1. bigger than the cast part

2. same size as the cast part

3. smaller than the cast part

4. none of these options

Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core, the
buoyancy force is which one of the following?

1. downward force =Wm - Wc

2. downward force = Wm + Wc

3. upward force = Wm + Wc

4. upward force = Wm - Wc

Which of the following materials require largest shrinkage allowance while making a pattern for a casting?

1. Plain Carbon steel

2. Cast Iron

3. Brass

4. Aluminum

Disposable patterns are made of

1. polystyrene

2. metal

3. rubber

4. wood

Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to compensate for shrinkage when

1. temperature of liquid metal drops from pouring to freezing temperature of the metal

2. metal changes from liquid state to solid state at freezing temperature

3. temperature of metal drops from pouring to room temperature

4. temperature of solid phase drops from freezing temperature to room temperature

In sand molding, core prints are used to

1. all of these options

2. strengthen the core so that it will not crumble while pouring

3. form seat to support and hold the core in place

4. fabricate the core

In sand molding draft is provided on the

1. casting

2. pattern

3. none of these options

4. cavity

Shell moulding requires

1. Polystyrene patterns

2. Wooden patterns

3. Sand patterns

4. Metal patterns

In a casting process, fluidity is mostly influenced by

1. solidification temperature

2. pouring temperature

3. tapping temperature

4. melting temperature

Sprue in sand casting refers to

1. vertical passage

2. gate

3. runner

4. riser

In sand molding, a slick refers to

1. a round sieve

2. a long, flat metal plate fitted with an offset handle

3. used to make or repair corners in the mould

4. used to scoop sand deep in the mould

The purpose of sprue is to

1. act as a reservoir for molten metal

2. help feed the casting until the solidification takes place

3. feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate

4. feed the cavity at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification

In sand mold, the purpose of gate is to

1. feed the cavity at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification

2. act a a reservoir for molten metal

3. feed molten metal from pouring basin to the gate

4. help feed the casting until all solidification takes place

The purpose of riser is to

1. feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate

2. help feed the casting until solidification takes place

3. feed the cavity at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification

4. act as a reservoir for molten metal

In sand molding there is no need to provide one of the following allowance, it is

1. distortion allowance

2. draft allowance

3. Shrinkage allowance

4. machining allowance

The purpose of chaplets in a mould is to

1. to support the core

2. compensate for shrinkage from pouring temperature to freezing temperature

3. provide venting

4. induce directional solidification

In metrology, a feeler gauge is used to check

1. Radius

2. Screw pitch

3. Surface roughness

4. Thickness of clearance

In surface roughness measurements, the term "secondary texture" represents ______

1.Lay direction 2.Flaw 3.roughness 4.Waviness

Tomlinson's surface meter and Taylor Hobson Talysurf are _______ instruments

1. surface roughness measuring

2. Surface waviness measuring

3. lay direction measuring

4. none of these

Slip gauges are _________standards

1. wave length

2. secondary

3. end

4. Line

Dial gauge is a ________

1. Angular measuring instrument

2. None of these

3. Surface measuring instrument

4. linear measuring instrument

Among the various terminologies related to surface roughness, 'Ra' represents _______

1. Roughness average

2. sampling length

3. Root Mean square value

4. Mean roughness depth

The least measurement that can be detected by a measuring instrument is _______

1. calibration

2. Precision

3. accuracy

4. Sensitivity

The closeness of the measured value to the actual value is ________

1. Repeatability

2. Precision

3. Sensitivity

4. Accuracy

The comparators eliminate the __________

1. need for machining

2. surface roughness

3. surface waviness

4. Measuring time

The scientist 'Carl Edvard Johansson' invented ________

1. Surface table

2. Slip gauges

3. Sine bar

4. Comparators

Primary standards are kept at all leading industries across the globe

1. -

2. -

3. True

4. False

The closeness among the measured value is ___________

1. Repeatability

2. Precision

3. Accuracy

4. Calibration

In metrology, angular measurements are made using __________

1.Sine bar and slip gauges 2.Slip gauge alone 3.surface platesand slip gauges 4.sine bar alone

In metrology, calibration is performed to __________

1. manufacture the equipment’s

2. measure the repeatability of the instrument

3. measure the surface roughness

4. to fix the errors

Error of measurement = _______

1. a) True value – Measured value

2. c) Measured value – Precision

3. b) Precision – True value

4. d) Measures value - 0.5x precision

The ability by which a measuring device can detect small differences in the quantity being measured by it, is called its ________________

1. a) Damping

2. b) Sensitivity

3. d) Readability

4. c) Accuracy

Comparing an unknown with a standard through calibrated system is called _______________

1. b) Indirect comparison

2. a) Direct comparison

3. c) Drastic calibration

4. d) None of the options

. Among the following options, pick the line standard of measurement

1. d) End bars

2. c) Micrometer

3. a) Measuring tape

4. b) Slip gauge

The angle gauge by Dr. Tomlinson consists of a set of _______________

1. d) 16 gauges

2. c) 14 gauges

3. a) 10 gauges

4. b) 12 gauges

The principle of ‘Inter-changeability’ is normally employed for _______

1. c) Mass production

2. b) Production of identical parts

3. a) Parts within the prescribed limits of sizes

4. d) For all the options

Following is the theoretical size which is common to both the parts of a mating pair

1. d) None of the options

2. c) Base size

3. a) Normal size

4. b) Actual size

_____ is equal to the differences of the two limits of size of the part

1. a) Tolerance

2. b) Low limit

3. c) High limit

4. d) Design size

The amount by which the actual size of a shaft is less than the actual size of mating hole in an assembly

1. a) Clearance

2. b) Interference

3. c) Allowance

4. d) None of the options

__________ is the basis of interferometry

1. a) Monochromatic light source

2. b) Halogen lights

3. c) High intensity flash lights

4. d) None of the options

A 1.5mm surface is being measured on an interferometer. A lamp is used which can emit wave lengths as follows.

Red: 0.842 µm, Blue: 0.6628 µm.

What are the nominal fractions expected for the gauge for the two wave lengths?

1. b) For Blue light, Nf = 0.3568

For red light, Nf = 1.2589

2. a) For Blue light, Nf = 0.2222

For red light, Nf = 0.9999

3. c) For Blue light, Nf = 0.2523

For red light, Nf = 0.9454

4. d) For Blue light, Nf = 0.2666

For red light, Nf = 35.9454

Cylindricity measurement comes under the category of _______________

1. a) Form measurement

2. b) linear measurement

3. c) surface measurement

4. d) alignment testing

"Piston -profile tester" is an instrument to check ___________________

1. c) Piston minor diameter

2. a) Piston ovality

3. b) Piston major diameter

4. d) All the options are correct

NO-GO gauge checks the ________________________

1. d) Least material condition

2. c) Both maximum and least material condition

3. b) Maximum material condition

4. a) None of the answers are correct

GO gauge checks the ________________________

1. Least material condition

2. Both maximum and least material condition

3. Maximum material condition

4. None of the answers are correct

In unilateral tolerance system, the gauge tolerance zones lie entirely within the __________________________

1. d) none of the options are correc

2. c) gauge tolerance zone

3. b) work tolerance zone

4. a) maximum tolerance zone

Which option given here is not the limitations/disadvantages of limit gauges

1. a) Do not indicate the actual size of the component

2. d) None of the options are correct

3. c) Conveniently used in mass production for controlling various dimensions

4. b) Require frequent checking of gauge dimensions

Which option given here is not the advantages of limit gauges

1. b) Require frequent checking of gauge dimensions

2. c) Economical in its own cost as well as engaging cost.

3. d) None of the options are correct

4. a) Conveniently used in mass production for controlling various dimensions

Reference gauges are also known as ___________________

1. b) Master gauges

2. d) Work gauges

3. c) GO- gauges

4. a) limit gauges

__________________ may be used to check the contour of a profile of work piece for conformance to certain shape.

1. d) snap gauges

2. a) taper gauges

3. b) form gauges

4. c) thread gauges

A template gauge comes under the category of ________________________

1. a) thread gauges

2. b) form gauges

3. d) none of the options are correct

4. c) taper gauges

The tool maker’s microscope is based on the principle of ____________________

1. c) TEMSEM

2. d) SEMTEM

3. b) OPTICS

4. a) SEMITEM

A collimator is a device that narrows a beam of particles or waves

1. c) Partially true

2. b) False

3. a) True

4. d) None of the options

Inter-changeability is the ability to select components for assembly at random and fit them together within proper tolerances

1. d) None of the options

2. c) True

3. a) partially true

4. b) false

. In a lathe, to check the Parallelism of the Main Spindle to Saddle Movement, we conduct _____________________

1. a) form test

2. b) alignment test

3. c) taper test

4. d) parallel test

An _______________ interferometer is a device in which two or more light waves are combined together to produce interference

1. c) Level

2. b) diametric

3. a) Magnetic

4. d) None of the options are correct

A screw thread measurement involves _____________________

1. a) major diameter

2. b) thread form

3. c) thread pitch

4. d) all the options are correct

2-wire and 3-wire methods measure __________________

1. a) effective thread length

2. b) shape of the bold head

3. c) Diameter of the bolt head

4. d) Effective diameter of screw thread

Calibration is performed to ____________________

1. d) None of the options are correct

2. c) fix the size of the equipment and to promote easy machining

3. b) to ascertain the accuracy of the instrument's reading

4. a) clean the equipment for dust and water

What a calibration certificate contains

1. d) All the options are correct

2. c) it is an unambiguous statement of the results, including an uncertainty statement

3. b) it uniquely identifies the instrument and its owner

4. a) it establishes the identity and credibility of the calibrating laboratory

Gauge blocks are a system for producing precision lengths

1. c) Partially true

2. b) False

3. a) True

4. d) Sometimes true

An important feature of gauge blocks is that they can be joined together with very little dimensional uncertainty

1. a) False

2. c) True

3. d) sometimes true

4. b) Partially true

The ______________________________________ on thickness of tooth is the variation of actual thickness of tooth from its theoretical value

1. a) Permissible error

2. b) tolerance value

3. c) both permissible error / tolerance value are correct

4. d) transverse value

Why Micrometer carries a ratchet stop?

Ratchet stop applies uniform pressure on the measuring faces.

Ratchet stop develops uniform temperature irrespective of operator’s skill and strength.

Ratchet stop protects the instrument from dust

Ratchet stop protects the instrument from acoustic troubles

What are the reasons behind false reading on Micrometer while taking measurements?

There is zero error in Micrometer.

Dirty work piece or measuring faces of micrometer.

Taking measurement when the job is moving

All the options are reasons

Mention the features of a Universal Bevel Protractor?

Minimum reading is 5 minutes.

Fine adjustment of the blade insures the precision measuring and laying out of angle

Main parts are of hardened stainless steel to prevent rust.

All the options are features

An eutectoid steel consists of

wholly pearlite

wholly austenite

pearlite and ferrite

pearlite and cementite

Shock resisting steels should have

low wear resistance

low hardness

low tensile strength

toughness

Cast iron is a

ductile material

malleable material

brittle material

tough material

The hardness is the property of a material due to which it

can be drawn into wires

breaks with little permanent distortion

can cut another metal

can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets

Malleable cast iron is produced

by adding magnesium to molten cast iron

by quick cooling of molten cast iron

from white cast iron by annealing process

none of these

The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from

0.1 to 0.5

0.5 to 1

1 to 1.7

Brass is an alloy of

copper and zinc

copper and tin

copper, tin and zinc

none of these

A material is said to be allotropic, if it has

fixed structure at all temperatures

atoms distributed in random pattern

different crystal structures at different temperatures

any one of the above

Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in

zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth

gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel

alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum

none of the above

The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by

hardening and cold working

normalising

martempering

full annealing

The quenching of steel from the upper critical point results in a fine grained structure.

Agree

Disagree

3. 4.

When the steel is normalised, its

yield point increases

ductility decreases

ultimate tensile strength increases

all of these

The unit cells

contain the smallest number of atoms which when taken together have all the properties of the crystals of the particular metal

have the same orientation and their similar faces are parallel

may be defined as the smallest parallelopiped which could be transposed in three coordinate directions to build up the space lattice

The lower critical point for all steels is

600°C

700°C

723°C

913°C

The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some directions but not in others, is called

mesomorphous material

crystalline material

none of these

amorphous material

Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3% carbon are known as

eutectic cast irons

hypo-eutectic cast irons

hyper-eutectic cast irons

none of these

The hardness of steel increases if it contains

pearlite

ferrite

cementite

martensite

In full annealing, the hypo-eutectoid steel is heated from 30° C to 50° C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled

in still air

slowly in the furnace

suddenly in a suitable cooling medium

any one of these

The lower critical temperature

decreases as the carbon content in steel increases

increases as the carbon content in steel increases

is same for all steels

depends upon the rate of heating

Which of the following is an amorphous material?

Mica

Silver

Lead

Glass

Preheating of parent metal plates before welding is done to

1. prevent cold cracks

2. burn away oil, grease, etc from the plate surface

3. make the steel softer

4. prevent plate distortions

Metal better weldable with itself is

1. stainless steel

2. copper

3. bronze

4. mild steel

Metal which can be suitable welded by TIG welding is

1. aluminum

2. pure titanium

3. stainless steel

4. all of these options

Main advantage of MIG welding (GMAW) over TIG welding is that

1. the former can be used to weld hard metals

2. welding rate is very fast

3. former permits use of large currents there by allowing higher deposition

4. welding is completely automatic

Thermit welding is

1. a process which uses a mixture of iron oxide and granular aluminum

2. a process in which arc is maintained under a blanket of flux

3. accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between plates

4. not a welding process

Submerged arc welding is

1. a process which uses a mixture of iron oxide and granular aluminum

2. a process in which arc is maintained under a blanket of flux

3. accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between the plates

4. none of these options

Submerged arc welding is

1. a process which uses a mixture of iron oxide and granular aluminum

2. a process in which arc is maintained under a blanket of flux

3. accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between the plates

4. none of these options

In gas welding, maximum temperature occurs at

1. next to the inner cone

2. the inner cone

3. the tip of flame

4. at the outer cone

Temperature of the plasma torch is of the order of

1. 1000 deg C

2. 5000 deg C

3. 10000 deg C

4. 30000 deg C

In reverse polarity welding

1. work is positive and the holder is earthed

2. holder is positive and the work is earthed

3. electrode holder is connected to negative polarity and the work to the positive poloarity

4. electrode holder is connected to positive polarity and the work to the negative polarity

Amperage setting in the electric arc welding (SMAW) depends on

1. work thickness

2. electrode rod diameter

3. arc gap

4. None of the options

Consumable electrode is used in the following welding process: -

1. TIG

2. MIG(GMAW)

3. LBM

4. Thermit

Ratio of oxygen to acetylene for complete combustion is

1. 1.5:1

2. 2:1

3. 2.5:1

4. 1:1

If two pieces of different metals are to be welded by projection welding, then the projection should be done on the metal piece having

1. lower conductivity

2. none of the options

3. same conductivity

4. higher conductivity

Multi spot welding is infact a

1. percussion welding

2. thermit welding

3. projection welding

4. seam welding

Material difficult to be spot welded is

1. stainless steel

2. copper

3. mild steel

4. none of these options

In fusion welding, porosity defect is due to

1. poor base metal

2. wrong size of electrode

3. low welding speed

4. high welding speed

Adding ‘C’ to pure Fe will,

Reduce the melting point

Increase the melting point

No change

Change volume drastically

Which of the following is the hardest one?

Ferrite

Cementite

Martensite

Tempered martensite

What is the major driving force for any phase transformation?

Volume change

Chemical compositional

Free energy reduction

None of these

Which of the following are intensive properties

Gibb’s free energy

Enthalpy

Entropy

Density

Voltage during the arc-striking compared to the voltage during welding in electric arc welding is

1. same

2. more

3. less

4. unpredictable

The weld pool is surrounded by an inert gas in

1. submerged arc welding

2. MIG(GMAW)

3. carbon arc welding

4. arc welding (SMAW)

Filler metal is used in

1. electric spot welding

2. seam welding

3. projection welding

4. none of these options

Electroslag welding is

1. a process which uses a mixture of iron oxide and granular aluminum

2. accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between plates

3. there is nothing called electro slag welding

4. a process in which arc is maintained under a blanket of flux

Arc length in an arc welding should be equal to

1. half the diameter of the electrode rod

2. diameter of the elecrode rod

3. twice the diameter of the electrode rod

4. 2.5 times the electrode rod diameter

Filler material is essentially used in

1. gas welding

2. spot welding

3. seam welding

4. all of these options

Grey iron is generally welded by

1. arc welding

2. TIG welding

3. MIG welding

4. gas welding

Copper is

1. suitable for spot welding just as anyother metal

2. very difficult to be spot welded

3. easily spot welded

4. prefered to be welded by spot welding

In electrical resistance welding

1. voltage is low and current is high

2. both voltage and current are low

3. voltage is high and current is low

4. both voltage and current are high

An example of plastic welding is

1. arc welding

2. gas welding

3. forge welding

4. none of these options

In sintering stage of powder metallurgy, which of the following process take place?

1. all the pores reduce in size

2. the powder particles fuse and join together

3. some of the pores grow

4. Particles do not meet, but a bond is formed between them

In production of precision components, the use of powder metallurgy technique mainly reduces

1. equipment cost

2. machining cost

3. material cost

4. tool-related costs

Widely used metal powder production method for powder metallurgy is

1. crushing using impact

2. liquid metal spray

3. none of these options

4. electrolytic deposition

One of the process used to manufacture crankshafts is

1. cold heading

2. casting

3. pressure die casting

4. investment casting

Most suitable process for manufacturing carburettor body is

1. pressure die casting

2. investment casting

3. casting

4. cold heading

Most suitable process for manufacturing nails is

1. cold heading

2. casting

3. pressure die casting

4. investment casting

Extrusion process can effectively reduce the cost of production through

1. none of these options

2. saving in adminstrative cost

3. material saving

4. in-process tooling costs

Major problem in hot extrusion is

1. design of die

2. wear and tear of die

3. design of punch

4. wear of punch

Upsetting or cold heading is a

1. bending process

2. forging process

3. rolling process

4. extrusion process

Material good for extrusion is

1. stainless steel

2. low carbon work hardened steel

3. brass casting

4. low carbon annealed steel

Seam less tube can be produced by

1. ring rolling combined with stretch forming

2. piercing

3. steam hammer forging

4. two high rolling mill

A tooth paste tube can be produced by

1. solid backward extrusion

2. hollow forward extrusion

3. solid forward extrusion

4. hollow backward extrusion

Rolling process can not be used to produce

1. a T section bar

2. an I-section bar

3. a channel section bar

4. a hollow circular section

The unit of thermal conductivity is ------------.

J/mK

W/mK

J/m²K

W/m²K

The insulation ability of an insulator in the presence of moisture would

remain unaffected

increase

decrease

be unpredictable

The ratio of heat flow Q₁/Q₂ from two walls of same thickness having their thermal conductivities K₁ = 2K₂ will be --------.

0.25

0.5

Metals are good conductors of heat because

Their atoms collide frequently

They have high density

They contain free electrons

Their atoms are relatively far apart

The value of Prandtle number for air is approximately

0.287

0.7

1.0

4.2

Absorptivity of a body equals its emissivity

at all temperatures

at one particular temperature

when system is under thermal equillibrium

at critical temperature

If temperature of a solid surface changes from 300 K to 900 K, then its emissive power changes in the ratio of

The zone of transition between laminar sublayer and turbulent core is called

transition zone

buffer layer

boundary layer

turbulent layer

Friction power of the IC engine will _________ if the engine speed is increased.

1. increases

2. no effect

3. decreases

4. depends of other engine torque

In a turbojet engine, subsequent to heat addition to compressed air, to get the power output, the working substance
is expanded in

1. exit nozzle, which is essentially an isentropic process.

2. exit nozzle, which is a constant volume process.

3. turbine blades, which is essentially an isentropic process.

4. turbine blades, which is essentially an isochoric process.

A nozzle is said to have choked flow when

1. Nozzle exit pressure is more than the critical pressure.

2. Discharge is zero.

3. Throat velocity is sonic.

4. Discharge is minimum.

In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 600 kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400 kJ/kg and the heat supplied is
1000 kJ/kg. The thermal efficiency of this cycle is :

1. 80%

2. 60%

3. 40%

4. 20%

. In an internal combustion engine, during the compression stroke the heat rejected to the cooling water is 50 kJ/kg and the work input is 100 kJ/kg. The change in internal energy of the working fluid is

1. 50 kJ/kg, loss

2. 50 kJ/kg, gain

3. 0

4. 100 kJ/kg, loss

Rankine cycle efficiency of well maintained steam power plant is in the range of

1. 35% to 45%

2. less than 10%

3. 50% to 60%

4. 10% to 20%

The efficiency of standard Diesel cycle depends on

1. compression ratio in the cycle

2. cut-off ratio in the cycle

3. cut-off ratio and compression ratio

4. mean effective pressure

Which process is included in air standard Diesel cycle?

1. Isochoric and isobaric heat addition

2. Isobaric heat addition

3. Isochoric heat addition

4. Polytropic compression

Which one of the following is part of air standard Braytion cycle?

1. Isochoric heat addition

2. Isobaric heat addition

3. Isochoric and isobaric heat addition

4. Polytropic compression

The mean effective pressure of an engine is defined as

1. work done per cycle/cylinder volume

2. work done/stroke volume

3. work done per kg/stroke volume

4. work done per cycle/stroke volume

An Otto cycle operates with volumes of 40 cm3 and 400 cm3 at Top Dead Centre and Bottom Dead Center respectively. If the power output is 100 kW, what is the heat input in kJ/s?

1. 145

2. 166

3. 93

4. 110

A low wet bulb temperature indicates very __________ humidity.

1. high

2. low or high depends on other properties

3. low

4. None of the options

Cooling with adiabatic humidification Process is known as

1. Adiabatic chemical dehumidification

2. Evaporative cooling

3. cooling and dehumidification

4. heating and humidification

The volumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will

1. increase

2. remain same

3. none of the above

4. decrease

A two satge compressor takes in air at 1.1. bar and discharges at 20 bar. for minimum compression work, the intermediate pressure is

1. 4.7 bar

2. 7.33 bar

3. 5.5 bar

4. 10.55 bar

In a single stage air-compressor, the clearance volume is 1/19th of the swept volume. It delivers 7.6 m3 of free air per minute from 100 kpa to 900 kpa. Assume the index of compression and expansion as 1.2. Find the volumetric efficiency of compressor

1. 62.4 %

2. 72.4 %

3. 90.4 %

4. 82.4 %

A 20 m3 of air per minute is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree Celsius to 10.24 bar. Calculate the minimum power required to drive the compressor with 2-stage compression. Assume the index of compression is 1.3

1. 88.9 kW

2. 58.8 kW

3. 78.8 kW

4. 68.2 kW

The work input to air compressor is minimum if the compression law followed is

PV^1.35= C

PV^γ = C

3. PV = C

4. None of the answers

Find the volumetric efficiency of the compressor if air is compressed from 1 bar to 7 bar. The expansion and compression are isentropic (n=1.3)and the clearance volume is 3% of stroke volume.

1. 89.6 %

2. 76.2%

3. 91.5%

4. 85.1%

A mono-atomic ideal gas (Ƴ = 1.67,molecular weight = 40) is compressed adiabatically from 0.1 MPa, 300 K to 0.2 MPa. The universal gas constant is 8.314 kJ/molK. The work of compression of the gas (in kJ/kg) is

29.7

19.9

13.3

zero

A gas expands in a frictionless piston-cylinder arrangement. The expansion process is very slow and is resisted by an ambient pressure of the 100 kPa. During the expansion process, the pressure of the system (gas) remains consant at 300 kPa. The change in volume of the gas is 0.01 m³. The maximum amount of work that could be utilized from the above process is

Zero

1 kJ

2 kJ

3kJ

A reversible thermodynamic cycle containing only three processes and producing work is to be constructed. The constrains are (a) there must be one isothermal process, (b) there must be one isentropic process, (c) the maximum and minimum cycle pressures and clearance volume are fixed and (d) polytrophic processes are not allowed. Then the number of possible cycles is/are

For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the highest efficiency occurs for

Saturated cycle

Superheated cycle

Reheat cycle

Regenerative cycle

A football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1 bar when the ambient temperature was 15°C. When the game started next day, the air temperature at the stadium was 5°C. Assume that the volume of the football remains constant at 2500 cm³, the amount of heat lost by the air in the football and the gauge pressure of air in the football at the stadium respectively equal to

1.30.6 J, 1.94 bar

2.21.8 J, 0.93 bar

61.1 J, 1.94 bar

43.7 J, 0.93 bar

Which of the following temperature scales doesn’t have negative numbers?

Celsius

Kelvin

Fahrenheit

Galileo

Which of the following could NOT be used to indicate a temperature change? A change in:

Colour of a metal rod

Length of a liquid column

Electrical resistance

Mass of one mole of gas at constant pressure

The property of a system that does not change when the system is undergoing adiabatic process

Pressure

Temperature

Volume

Quantity of Heat

A heat engine takes in some amount of thermal energy and performs 50 J of work in each cycle and rejects 150 J of energy. What is its efficiency?

500 %

400 %

25 %

20 %

A rigid container holds an ideal gas (Cv = 0.75 kJ/(kg K) ). The container is cooled from 110℃ to 20℃. Find the specific heat transfer (kJ/kg) for the process

67.5 kJ/ kg

– 67.5 kJ / kg

-96 kJ/kg

96 kJ/kg

Match items in List-I (Process) with those in List-II (Characteristic) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Throttling process 1. No work done

B. Adiabatic process 2. No heat transfer

C. Free expansion 3. Constant internal energy

D. Isothermal process 4. Constant enthalpy

A B C D

4 2 1 3

A B C D

1 2 4 3

A B C D

4 3 1 2

A B C D

1 3 4 2

Think about how a refrigerator works and the system of the refrigerator and the area outside of the refrigerator at ambient temperature. Is the high temperature the body refrigerator or the ambient air around the refrigerator?

Not enough information to answer

Provided the refrigerator is working, the refrigerator is the higher temperature body

Provided the refrigerator is working, the area around the refrigerator is the higher temperature body

Provided the refrigerator is working, the bodies are of the same temperature

A rigid vessel contains pure substance and it passes through the critical state on heating only if the initial state is

subcooled water

wet

dry

superheated

The temperature recorded by a thermometer when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to air.

1. Dew point temperature

2. Dry-bulb temperature

3. Wet-bulb temperature

4. None of the answers

The spark advance is usually specified in terms of

1. engine spped in rev/sec

2. piston displacement from TDC

3. time in seconds

4. degree of crank rotation

In reciprocating compressors, clearance is provided

1. To reduce power consumption of the compressor

2. To accommodate valves

3. To improve the volumetric efficiency of the compressor

4. To account for thermal expansion due to temperature variation

The commercial refrigeration system which is closer to reversed carnot cycle in terms of performance is

1. Air refrigeration system

2. cryogenic system

3. vapour absorption cycle

4. Vapour compression cycle

Air ( Cp = 1.0 kJ/kg ratio of specific heat = 1.4) enter a compressor at a temperature of 27 deg.C. The compressor ratio is 4. Asuuming an mechanical efficiency of 80%, the compressor work required in kJ/kg is

1. 172

2. 160

3. 225

4. 182

The latent heat load in an auditoriam is 25% of sensible heat load. The value of sensible heat factor(SHF) is equal to

1. 0.25

2. 0.5

3. 0.8

4. 1.0

___________gives the fraction of air which does not come into contact with heating coil surface

1. latent heat factor

2. total heat factor

3. sensible heat factor

4. By pass factor

Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based on _____________ law of thermodynamics

1. First

2. second

3. third

4. none of the above

Humidification or Dehumidification process is also called as

1. sensible heat process

2. all the answers

3. total heat process

4. latent heat process

The air refrigeration system is working on _____________________ cycle

1. VCR cycle

2. carnot cycle

3. bell column cycle

4. driving cycle

A lubrication system in which a scoop connected at the lowest part of the connecting rod is used to spread the lubricating oil on the cylinder wall is called

1. dry sump system

2. petroil system

3. pressure system

4. splash system

The amount of heat removed from 1 ton (1000 kg) of pure water supplied at 0⁰C to form ice at 0⁰C in 24 hours is known as _______________

1. One TR

2.3.5 kW

3. 14000 kJ/hr

4.all the above

A 40 kW engine has a mechanical efficiency of 80 %. If the frictional power is assumed to be constant with load, what is the approximate value of the mechanical efficiency at 50% of the rated load?

1. 77%

2. 57%

3. 47%

4. 67%

A refrigerant should have low

1. specific volume of vapour

2.specific heat of liquid

3. boiling point

4.all of the above

Antiknock character of compression ignition engine fuel is increased by

1. Lead ethide

2. Amyl nitrate

3. Tetra ethyl lead

4. Napthane

In computing the engine performance, the heating value of fuel used is _______________

1. The Average of lower and higher heating values

2. Higher heating value

3. Lower heating value

4. None of the above

Superheating in vapour compression refrigeration cycle is

1. Increases work of compression

2. Increases the specific volume of refrigerant vapour

3. Increases refrigeration effect

4. All the answers

The ratio of high temperature to low temperature in reversed carnot cycle refrigerator is 1.1. The COP of the refrigerator will be

1. 4

2. 4.5

3. 3.5

4. 10

0.7 kg/s of air enters with a spefic enthalpy of 290 kJ and leaves it with 450 kJ of specific enthalpy. Velocities at inlet and exit are 6 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. Assuming adiabatic process, what is power input to the compressor?

1. 112 kW

2. 115 kW

3. 118 kW

4. 120 kW

Which one of the following phenomena occurs when gas in a piston-in-cylinder assembly expands reversibiliy at constant pressure?

1. Heat is added to the gas

2. Heat is removed from the gas

3. Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion

4. Gas does work from its own stored energy

The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)

1.20°C DBT and 80% RH 2.25°C DBT and 100% RH 3.25°C DBT and 40% RH 4.22°C DBT and 60% RH

The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are

1.horizontal and non-uniformly spaced 2.horizontal and uniformly spaced 3.vertical and uniformly spaced 4.curved lines

The total and static pressures at the inlet of a steam nozzle are 186 kPa and 178 kPa respectively. If the total pressure at the exit is 180 kPa and static pressure is 100 kPa, then the loss of energy per unit mass in the nozzle will be:

1. 2 kPa

2. 6 kPa

3. 8 kPa

4. 78 kPa

In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

1.condenser 2.evaporator 3.compressor 4.expansion valve

In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is 20 kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process will be

1.0.37 2.0.3 3.0.6 4.0.67

During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains constant.

1.relative humidity 2.dew point temperature 3.wet bulb temperature 4.dry bulb temperature

The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called

1.dew point depression 2.dry bulb depression 3.degree of saturation 4.wet bulb depression

Sub-cooling in a refrigeration cycle

1.increases COP 2.decreases COP 3.COP remains unaltered 4.unpredictable

A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and evaporator temperature of- 23°C. The Cannot coefficient of performance of cycle will be

1.0.2 2.1.2 3.10 4.5

In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid and vapour between

1.compressor and evaporator 2.condenser and expansion valve 3.expansion valve and evaporator 4.compressor and condenser

In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

1.compressor 2.condenser 3.evaporator 4.expansion valve

Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?

1.compressor 2.evaporator 3.condenser 4.expansion valve

Combustion in compression ignition engines is

1.laminar 2.homogeneous and hetrogeneous 3.heterogeneous 4.homogeneous

To reduce the possibility of knock in the C.I. engines, the first elements of fuel and air should have

1.high temperature 2.high density 3.all the options 4.short delay

The detonation tendency in petrol engines for specified conditions of fuel rating, compression ratio, speed etc. can be controlled by having

1.smaller cylinder bore 2.bigger cylinder bore 3.medium cylinder bare 4.cylinder bore could be anything as it does not control detonation

Supercharging is the process of

1.supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere 2.Injecting excess fuel for raising more load 3.providing forced cooling air 4.supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully

The knocking in diesel engines for given fuel, will be

1.enhanced by increasing compression ratio 2.enhanced by decreasing compression ratio 3.dependent on other factors 4.unaflected by compression ratio

Ignition quality of diesel-fuel oil is expressed by an index called

1.octane number 2.carbon content 3.calorific value 4.cetane number

Fuel consumption with increase in back pressure in engine will

1.remain unaffected 2.none of the options 3.increase 4.decrease

Thermal efficiency of high speed diesel engine at design load may be of the order of

1.70% 2.50% 3.35% 4.20%

The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is called

1.net efficiency 2.efficiency ratio 3.relative efficiency 4.overall efficiency

In petrol engine using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, super charging will

1.increase the knocking tendency 2.decrease the knocking tendency 3.not affect the knocking tendency 4.unpredictable.

Inter cooling in compressors

1.cools the delivered air 2.results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure 3.is the standard practice for big compressors 4.enables compression in two stages

A compressor at high altitude will draw

1.more power 2.less power 3.same power 4.none of the options

In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between

1.inlet and outlet 2.inlet and thoroat 3.throat and exit 4.all the options

If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will

1.increase 2.decrease 3.unpredictable 4.remain same

The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

1.dry bulb temperature 2.wet bulb temperature 3.relative humidity 4.dew point temperature

One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is

1.420 kJ/min 2.210 kJ/min 3.21 kJ/min 4.620 kJ/min

Consider the following statements regarding an impulse turbine:

1. Relative velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.

2. Absolute velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.

3. Static pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.

4. Total pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.

Of these statements:

1. 1 and 3 are correct

2. 2 and 3 are correct

3. 1 and 4 are correct

4. 2 and 4 are correct

In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is 537 m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW for unit steam flowrate will be

282 kW

296 kW

260 kW

302 kW

Increase in entropy of a system represents

Increase in availability of energy

increase in temperature

decrease in pressure

degradation of energy

The temperature of water flowing through the turbine increases from 25°C to 27°C due to friction. If there is no heat transfer, determine the change of entropy of water.

2.8 J/kgK

28J/kgK

-2.8kJ/kgK

-28kJ/kgK

A paddle wheel fitted with a 300 W motor is used to stir water in a large container. The water in the container is maintained at 300 K and if the motor runs for 2 hours, determine the change in entropy of water.

7200 J/K

-7200 J/K

72 J/K

A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kgK to 0.4 kJ/kgK. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. Determine the process.

Reversible and isothermal

Irreversible

Reversible

Impossible

When pressure is raised in an isentropic process, the enthalpy of the substance

Remains same

Increases

decreases

First increases and then decreases

The dryness fraction at the end of expansion of a Reheat cycle operating under the same temperature limits has

Same as that of Rankine cycle

More than that of Rankine cycle

Less than that of Rankine cycle

Not able to correlate with provided data.

Which one of the following thermodynamic relations is incorrect

T.dS = du + p.dv

T.dS = dh + v.dp

dH = T.dS + v.dp

dG = Vdp − S.dT

Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?

Volume

2.Pressure

Temperature

Density

The sequence of events that eventually returns the working fluid to its original state is known as

process

cycle

path

property

If C is the number of components and φ is the number of phases in a system, the number of independent intensive properties required to specify the state of the system

F=C-φ-2

F=C+φ+2

F=C-φ+2

F=C+φ-2

Which of the following curve has a negative slope for water as working fluid in the P-T phase diagram

Fusion curve

evaporation curve

triple point line

sublimation curve.

The work output of a Reheat cycle operating under the same temperature limits is:

Same as that of Rankine cycle

Greater than that of Rankine cycle

Lesser than that of Ranking cycle

Not able to correlate with provided data.

Which of the following statements about absolute zero temperature is true?

At absolute zero all translational motion of the particles ceases

At absolute zero all rotational motion of the particles ceases.

Absolute zero is defined at −273.15°C.

All the above.

What mass of He gas occupies 8.5 liters at 0°C and 1 atmosphere? (The molar mass of He = 4.00 g/mol.)

10.5 g

1.52 g

0.38 g

2.6 g

A gas has a density X at standard temperature and pressure. What is the new density when the absolute temperature is doubled and the pressure increased by a factor of 3?

(2/3)X

(4/3)X

(3/2)X

(3/4)X

A rigid container of air is at atmospheric pressure and 27ºC. To double the pressure in the container, heat it to

54ºC

300ºC

327ºC

600ºC

If a mass of oxygen gas occupies a volume of 8 L at standard temperature and pressure, what is the change in the volume if the temperature is reduced by one half and the pressure is doubled?

It increases to 12 L.

It increases to 6 L.

It increases to 2 L.

It increases to 24 L.

If the pressure and volume of an ideal gas are both reduced to half their original value, the absolute temperature of the gas is

unchanged.

increased by a factor of 4.

doubled.

decreased by a factor of 4.

The relationship between the pressure and the volume of a gas expressed by Boyle's law holds true

for some gases under any conditions.

for all gases under any conditions.

if the container of the gas can expand with increasing pressure.

if the temperature is constant.

The air around us has 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen. If the pressure is 1 atm, the pressure due to oxygen is

0.21 atm

0.78 atm

1 atm

0.67 atm

The work output of theoretical Otto cycle

increases with increase in compression ratio

increases with increase in pressure ratio

increases with increase in adiabatic index γ

follows all the above.

In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by

change of internal energy between inlet and outlet

change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet

change of entropy between inlet and outlet

change of temperature between inlet and outlet.

Fixed position layout is also known as

synthetic layout

analytical layout

Static product layout

none of these

In inventory control theory, the economic order quantity is

capacity of a warehouse

average level of inventory

optimum lot size

lot size corresponding to break-even analysis

Production cost refers to prime cost plus

factory and administration overheads

factory overheads

factory, administration and sales overheads

factory, administration, sales overheads and profit

Which one of the following chart gives simultaneously information about the progress of work and machine loading?

Process chart

Gantt Chart

Machine load chart

Man machine chart

Work sampling is applied for

estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job activities

estimation of the percentage utilisation of machine tools

finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive and where time study by stop watch method is not possible

all of the above

A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of

motion study

Time study

job enrichment

All of these

A diagram showing the path followed by men and materials while performing a task is known as

flow process chart

travel chart

string diagram

flow diagram

In time study, the rating factor is applied to determine

Standard time of a job

merit rating of the worker

fixation of incentive rate

normal time of a worker

The chart which gives an estimate about the amount of materials handling between various work stations is known as

Operation chart

process chart

Travel chart

flow chart

String diagram is used

where processes require the operator to be moved from one work place to another

for checking the relative values of various layouts

when a group of workers are working at a place

all of the above

The determination of standard time in a complex job system is best done through

analysis of standard data system

analysis of micromotions

grouping timing technique

stop watch time study

In A-B-C analysis, which class of items are generally large in number?

In break even analysis, total cost consists of

fixed cost + variable cost

Variable cost + sales revenue

fixed cost + sales revenue

fixed cost + variable cost + profit

Direct expenses include

factory expenses

administrative expenses

selling expenses

none of these

Which of the following type of layout is suitable for automobile manufacturing concern?

product layout

fixed position layout

combination layout

process layout

Work study involes

only work measurement

method study and work measurement

only motion study

only method study

Dispatching

prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed

determines the programme for the operations

is concerned with the starting of processes

regulates the progress of job through various processes

In order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities, the layout preferred is

group layout

product layout

process layout

static layout

Process layout is also known as

synthetic layout

none of these

static product layout

analytical layout

For handling materials during manufacture of cement, a __________ is widely used

fork lift truck

belt conveyor

bucket conveyor

fork lift truck

In product layout

machines can not be used to their maximum capacity

specialised and strict supervision is required

manufacturing cost rises with a fall in the volume of production

all of the above

Process layout is employed

where similar jobs are manufactured on similar machines

all of the above

where machines are arranged on functional basis

where low volume of production is required

Which one of the following techniques is used for determining allowances in time study?

Linear regression

Acceptance sampling

Performance rating

Work sampling

In process layout

production control is more difficult and costly

handling and back-tracking of materials is too much

routing and scheduling is more difficult

all of the above

Which of the following charts are used for plant layout design?

Man machine chart

Operation process chart

Travel chart

all of these

A-B-C analysis

is a basic technique of materials management

is meant for relative inventory control

does not depend upon the unit cost of the item but on its annual consumption

all of the above

Routing

prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed

is concerned with starting of processes

regulates the progress of job through various processes

determines the programme for the operations

Indirect expenses include

all of these

factory expenses

selling expenses

administrative expenses

Performance rating is equal to

observed performance - normal performance

observed performance + normal performance

observed performance x normal performance

none of the above

In jobbing production

unit costs are high

all of these

operations are labour-intensive

highly skilled workers are needed

Abbreviated work factor data is applied for

material handling operation

maintenance operation

packing and shipping operation

all of these

According to Muther, the basic principle of best layout is

Principle of flow

principle of flexibility

principle of over-all integration

all of these

What does a symbol D imply in workstudy

Inspection

Transportation

Delay

Storage

The time taken by a trained worker to perform an operation, while working a steady pace, is known as

normal time

representative time

standard time

None of these

Productivity increases when

inputs increase while outputs remain the same

inputs decrease while outputs remain the same

outputs decrease while inputs remain the same

inputs and outputs increase proportionately

Which of the following is not a therblig?

Use

Hold

Dispatch

Inspect

Micromotion study is

enlarged view of motion study

analysis of only one stage of motion study

time study of small components up to microseconds

subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis

Greater flexibility in plant layout is achieved in case of

Process layout

Product layout

Combination layout

Fixed position layout

-Routing and Scheduling are integral part of

Work study

Job analysis

Quality control

Product planning

Work sampling is applied for

estimation of the percentage utilisation of machine tools

estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job activities

finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive and where time study by stop watch method is not possible

all of the above

Which one of the following chart gives simultaneously information about the progress of work and machine loading?

Process chart

Machine load chart

Man-machine chart

Gantt chart

Which of the following statement is correct?

A-B-C analysis is based on Pareto's principle.

Simulation can be used for inventory control.

Economic order quantity formula ignores variations in demand pattern

all of the above

The unit cost in case of batch production is __________as compared to jobbing production.

Same

Low

High

None

For a product layout the material handling equipment must

Have full flexibility

Employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.

Be a general purpose type

Be designed as special purpose for a particular application

Which of the following is independent of sales forecast?

Productivity

Inventory control

Production planning

Production control

Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production?

Process layout

Product layout

Fixed position layout

Plant layout

Performance rating is equal to

Observed performance + normal performance

Observed performance - normal performance

Observed performance × normal performance

None of the above

In the cost structure of a product, the selling price is determined by the factors such as

Sales turn over

Lowest competitive price

Various elements of the cost

All of the above

Which one of the following techniques is used for determining allowances in time study?

Acceptance sampling

Linear regression

Performance rating

Work Sampling

Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of

A job

An individual employee

A particular division in workshop

Machine

Routing is essential in the following type of industry

Assembly industry

Process industry

Job order industry

Mass production industry

The production scheduling is simpler and high volume of output and high labour efficiency are achieved in the case of

Product layout

Process layout

Fixed position layout

A combination of line and process layout

The disadvantage of product layout is

High initial investment for the specialized facilities

Skilled labour to operate machines

Production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory

High cost of inspection

Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at

Achieving optimization

Ensuring against market fluctuations

Acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory

Discounts allowed in bulk purchase

The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus

Policy allowance

Interference allowance

Process allowance

Learning allowance

In manufacturing management, the term 'Dispatching' is used to describe

Dispatch of sales order

Dispatch of factory mail

Dispatch of finished product of the user

Dispatch of work orders through shop floor

For handling materials during manufacture of cement, a _________ is widely used.

Belt conveyor

Bucket conveyor

Fork lift truck

Overhead crane

Process layout is employed

Where low volume of production is required

Where similar jobs are manufactured on similar machines

Where machines are arranged on functional basis

All of the above

What does symbol 'O' imply in work study?

Inspection

Opeartion

Dealy

Storage

For a small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is Rs. 5000. The variable cost per product is Rs. 20 and sales price is Rs. 30 per piece. The break even production per month will be

300

460

500

1000

The type of layout used for manufacturing steam turbines, is

Product layout

Process layout

Fixed position layout

Any one of these

Motion study involves analysis of

Actions of operator

Layout of work place

Tooling and equipment

All of the above

The average time recorded by work study man for an operation is called

Standard time

Normal time

Representative time

None of these

Indirect expenses include

Factory expenses

Selling expenses

Administrative expenses

All of these

Time study is carried out to determine the time required to complete job by

A slow worker

A fast worker

An average worker

An apprentice

In order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities, the layout preferred is

Product layout

Process layout

Group layout

Static layout

Father of industrial engineering is

Jack Gilbert

Gantt

Taylor

Newton

Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to

Determine overhead expenses

Provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages

Determine standard costs

Determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines

Works cost implies

Primary cost

Factory cost

Factory expenses

Primary cost + factory expenses

Which of the following charts are used for plant layout design?

Operation process chart

Man machine chart

Travel chart

All of these

Euler equation for turbomachines is derived on the basis of

1. Rate of change of angular momentum

2. Rate of change of linear momentum

3. Conservation of mass

4. Rate of change of velocity

In centrifugal compressor terminology, vane-less space refers to the space between

1. impeller tip and diffuser inlet edge

2. diffuser exit and volute casing

3. blades in the impeller

4. the inlet and blade inlet edge

In product layout

specialised and strict supervision is required

machines can not be used to their maximum capacity

manufacturing cost rises with a fall in the volume of production

all of the above

A company spends considerable amount on publicity to promote sales. This expenditure in break even chart is shown below the

fixed cost line

variable cost line

total cost line

sales revenue line

The main objective of work measurement is to

plan and schedule of production

formulate a proper incentive scheme

estimate the selling prices and delivery dates

all of the above

In fixed position layout

total production cost is less

material movement is less

capital investment is minimum

all of these

The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor is called as

1. Slip factor

2. Work factor

3. Flow coefficient

4. Velocity factor

A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of

job enrichment

time study

motion study

All of these

An axial flow compressor stage is suitable for

1. high volume flow rates with a small pressure rise

2. high volume flow rates with high pressure rise

3. low volume flow rates with low pressure rise

4. low volume flow rates with high pressure rise

In aircraft gas turbines, the axial flow compressor is preferred because

1. of low frontal area

2. it is stall free

3. of high pressure rise

4. of high pressure rise per stage

An axial flow compressor has

1. larger blades at gas entry and smaller blades at exit

2. size of blades remains same only angles changes

3. identical blades at exit as well as entry

4. smaller blades at gas entry and larger blades at exit

In a centrifugal pump, water enters

1.Axially but leaves radially 2.At an angle but leaves axially 3.Axially and leaves axially 4.Radially but leaves axially

Multi stage centrifugal pumps in parallel connection are used to

1.Give high discharge 2.Produce high heads 3.All these options 4.Pump viscous fluids

A centrifugal pump delivers water at the rate of 50 litres/s against a total head of 40 metres. Then the power required to drive the pump is

1. 2 kW

2. 15.2 kW

3. 19.6 kW

4. 25.8 kW

Which one of the following helps in avoiding cavitation in centrifugal pumps?

1. Low delivery pressure

2. High delivery pressure

3. Low suction pressure

4. High suction pressure

A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is

1. 25 m to 250 m

2. 0 to 25 m

3. none of these options

4. above 250 m

Specific speed of a Kaplan Turbine ranges between

1.1 to 10

2.10 to 100 3.more than 100 4.none of the above

Consider the following characteristics:
1. The fluid enters the pump axially and is discharged radially
2. Maximum efficiency may be of the order of 90%
3. Development of a low head
4. A limited suction capacity
Which of the above characteristics are possessed by axial flow pumps?

1. 1 and 2

2. 2 and 3

3. 2 and 4

4. 3 and 4

Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The degree of reaction of an impulse turbine:

1.is equal to zero 2.is greater than zero 3.is less than zero 4.increases with steam velocity at the inlet

Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used

1.to increase the speed of the runner 2.to change the direction of runner 3.to bring the runner to rest in a short time 4.to break the jet of water

Consider the following statements regarding an impulse turbine:

1. Relative velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.

2. Absolute velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.

3. Static pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.

4. Total pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.

Of these statements:

1. 1 and 3 are correct

2. 2 and 3 are correct

3. 1 and 4 are correct

4. 2 and 4 are correct

If the enthalpy drops of moving blade and fixed blade of a stage in a reaction turbine are 9 and 11 kJ/kg respectively,

then degree of reaction of the stage is

1. 0.1

2. 1.0

3. 0.45

4. 0.55

The degree of reaction of a turbine is the ratio of enthalpy drop in

1. fixed blades to enthalpy drop in the stage

2. moving blades to enthalpy drop in the stage

3. fixed blades to enthalpy drop in moving blades

4. moving blades to enthalpy drop in fixed blades

In motion and time study which of the following is used in product analysis?

Process chart

man machine chart

Multi process chart

All of the above

Consider the following statements regarding the axial flow in an air compressor:
1. Surging is a local phenomenon while stalling affects the entire compressor.
2. Stalling is a local phenomenon while surging affects the entire compressor.
3. The pressure ratio of an axial compressor stage is smaller than that of a centrifugal compressor stage.
Of these statements

1.1 and 3 are correct 2.1, 2 and 3 are correct 3.2 and 3 are correct 4.1 and 2 are correct

The hydraulic efficiency of a reaction turbine, is the ratio of

1. workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the turbine

2. power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine

3. actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel

4. none of these options

In motion and time study which of the following is used in man analysis?

Man and machine analysis chart

Man and maching operation time chart

Man and machine, process time chart

All of the above

The function of the draft tube in a reaction turbine is

1. To enable the shaft of the turbine to be vertical

2. To transform a large part of pressure energy at turbine outlet into kinetic energy

3. To avoid whirl losses at the exit of the turbine

4. To transform a large part of kinetic energy at the turbine outlet into pressure energy

Which of the following is unaboidable delay?

Waiting for raw material

Non-availability of inspection gauge

Non-availability of power

Tool breakage

The most important objective behind plant layout is

Overall simplification, safety of integration

Economy in space

Maximum travel time in plant

To provide conveniently located shops

The main aim of compounding of steam turbine is to

1. avoid steam condensation

2. reduce rotor speed

3. improve efficiency

4. reduce steam consumption

Productivity can be rational defined by

Outputs/Inputs

Input + Output)/ Output

Output/(Input + Output)

Inputs/Outputs

What is the productivity for a company produces 40kg of plastic parts of acceptable quality by consuming 50kg of raw material

0.8

1.25

0.44

2.25

Based on the direction of flow, which one of the following turbines is different from the other three?

1. Pelton turbine

2. Parson's turbine

3. De Laval turbine

4. Kaplan turbine

One of the following doesn’t mean “Partial Productivity’

Indicates how much of a particular kind of input it takes to produce an output

Outputs/(Single kind of input)

(Total Output)/(Total Input)

How efficiently company use only one input, such as raw material, when creating outputs

For prosperity growth of any business we need

Both Effectiveness and Efficiency

Effectiveness only

Efficiency only

None of the above

The determination of standard time in a complex job system is best done through

Stop watch time study

Analysis of micro-motions

Grouping timing technique

Analysis of standard data system

Which of the following are the principles of material handling?

Keep all the handling to the minimum

Select only efficient handling equipment

Move the heaviest weight to the least distance

All of the above

Which of the following type of layout is suitable for automobile manufacturing concern?

Product layout

Process layout

Fixed position layout

Combination layout

A diffuser is used to

1.increase velocity and decrease pressure 2.increase velocity as well as pressure 3.decrease velocity and increase pressure 4.decrease velocity as well as pressure

The stagnation pressure rise in a centrifugal compressor takes place

1.in the inlet guide vanes only 2.in the impeller only 3.in the diffuser only 4.in the diffuser and impeller

For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm when the
nozzle angle is 20⁰, the optimum velocity of steam in m/s is

1. 356

2. 334

3. 711

4. 668

Manometric efficiency of a centrifugal pump is defined as the ratio of

1. head imparted by the impeller to water to the suction head

2. manometric head to the head imparted by the impeller to water

3. suction head to the head imparted by the impeller to water

4. manometric head to the head imparted by the impeller to water

Which one of the following helps in avoiding cavitation in centrifugal pumps?

1. Low suction pressure

2. High suction pressure

3. Low delivery pressure

4. High delivery pressure

In a pelton Wheel the bucket peripheral speed is 10 m/s, the water jet velocity is 25 m/s and volumetric flow rate of the jet is 0.1m³/s. If the jet defection angle is 120⁰ and the flow is ideal, the power developed is

1. 15 kW

2. 37.5 kW

3. 7.5 kW

4. 22.5 kW

A Pelton wheel turbine is,

1. Outward flow impulse turbine

2. Inward flow reaction turbine

3. Inward flow impulse turbine

4. Tangential flow impulse turbine

Kaplan turbine need to have the following for maintaining high efficiency

1. Variable angle blades

2. More number of blades

3. Less number of blades

4. Fixed angle blades

A Kaplan turbine is,

1. Low head axial flow turbine.

2. An reaction turbine, outward flow type

3. An impulse turbine, inward flow type

4. A high head mixed flow turbine

Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases the head on the turbine by an amount equal to the height of runner outlet above the tail race?

1. Scroll casing

2. Draft tube

3. Guide vanes

4. Moving vanes

Steam enters the rotor of a reaction turbine with an absolute velocity of 236 m/s and the relative velocity of 132 m/s. It leaves the rotor with a relative velocity of 232 m/s absolute velocity of 126 m/s. The specific work output is

1. 40.1 kJ/kg

2. 47.4 kJ/kg

3. 38.1 kJ/kg

4. 43.8 kJ/kg

Consider the following statements:
1. Almost all flow losses take place in the diverging part of a nozzle.
2. Normal shocks are likely to occur in the converging part of a nozzle.
3. Efficiency of reaction turbines is higher than that of impulse turbines.
Of these statements

1. 2 and 3 are correct

2. 1 and 3 are correct

3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

4. 1 and 2 are correct

Which of the followings are the demerits of single impulse stage
1. Requirement of C-D nozzle
2. Enhanced shock associated losses
3. More boundary layer associated losses in comparison with single reaction stage

1. 1 and 2 only

2. 1 and 3 only

3. 2 and 3 only

4. 1,2 and 3

The pressure rise in the impeller of centrifugal compressor is achieved by

1. the centrifugal and diffusion action

2. the centrifugal and push-pull action

3. the centrifugal action and decrease in volume

4. the decrease in volume and diffusion action

Stalling of blades in axial- flow compressor is the phenomenon of

1. motion of air at sonic velocity

2. air steam not able to follow the blade contour

3. unsteady, periodic and reversed flow

4. air stream blocking the passage

An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of power when the blade mean speed is 400 m/s. What is the rate of change of momentum tangential to the rotor?

1. 150 N

2. 125 N

3. 200 N

4. 175 N

Considering the variation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse steam turbine, across one row of moving blades

1. both pressure and velocity decrease

2. pressure remains constant, while velocity decreases

3. pressure decreases but velocity increases

4. pressure remains constant, while velocity increases

The static temperature and Mach number at the inlet of a centrifugal compressor are 303 K and 0.5 respectively. The stagnation temperature of the air at the inlet will be:

1. 34.6 degree Celcius

2. 60.3 degree Celcius

3. 45.15 degree Celcius

4. 31.5 degree Celcius

When n = 1.3 and ɤ = 1.4, the polytropic efficiency of a turbine is

80.7%

70.7%

60.7%

90.7%

The overall efficiency of the compressor is ____________than the stage efficiency

less

higher

same

The pressure of the working fluid changes in both stator and rotor for a impulse stage of turbine

Yes

3. 4.

What is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler work in an centrifugal compressor called?

1.Work coefficient
2.

Velocity coefficient

Pressure coefficient

Flow coefficient

The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor is called as _________.

velocity factor

slip factor

work factor

none of the above

For a zero percent reaction stage of axial flow turbine, β₂ = β₃

Yes

3. 4.

Vaneless diffusers are suitable for ___________.

only low pressure rise

only high pressure rise

both low as well as high pressure rise

The diffuser blades are kept ______ the number of impeller blades.

1/10 th of

1/3 rd of

10 times

3 times

The function of _________ is to convert high kinetic energy of gases into pressure energy.

impeller

diffuser

casing

None of the above

What is the number of jets generally employed in an impulse turbine without jet interference?

The number of blades for a Francis turbine lies between

16 to 24

24 to 48

0 to 6

10 to 20

Which of the following statement is correct as regard to water wheels?

they have slow speed

they give constant efficiency even if the discharge is not constant

they are suitable even for low loads

all the above

Which of the following is not an impulse turbine?

Kaplan turbine

Girad turbine

Turgo turbine

Pelton wheel

Which of the following statement is wrong ?

The angle of taper on draft tube is less than 8⁰

Francis turbine is an impulse turbine

The reaction turbines are used for low head and high discharge

An impulse turbine is generally fitted

Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of

impulse turbine

axial flow turbines

mixed flow

reaction turbine

A turbine develops 10000 kW under a head of 25 meters at 135 r.p.m. Its specific speed is

175.4

215.5

275.4

241.5

For harnessing lower variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high percentage of reaction and runner adjustable vanes is,

1. Pelton

2. Francis

3. Kaplan

4. Impeller

A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine are examples of

1. different types of reaction stages

2. a simple impulse stage, a velocity compounded impulse stage and reaction stage

3. different types of impulse stages

4. velocity compounded impulse stage, a simple impulse stage and a reaction stage

Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases the head on the turbine by an amount equal to the height of runner outlet above the tail race?

1. Guide vanes

2. Moving vanes

3. Draft tube

4. Scroll casing

Which of the following is a reaction turbine?

1. Pelton turbine and Francis turbine

2. Kaplan and Pelton turbine

3. Francis turbine and Kaplan turbine

4. Pelton and Propeller Turbine

1. 1 and 2 only

2. 1 and 3 only

3. 2 and 3 only

4. 1,2 and 3

Which one of the following is used to bring down the speed of an impulse steam turbine to practical limits?

1. A gear box

2. A centrifugal governor

3. A large flywheel

4. Compounding of the turbine

An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of power when the blade mean speed is 400 m/s. What is the rate of change of momentum tangential to the rotor?

1. 150 N

2. 125 N

3. 200 N

4. 175 N

In a circular pipe of certain length carrying oil at a Reynolds number 100, it is proposed to triple the discharge. If the viscosity remains unchanged, the power input will have to be

1. decreased to 1/3 its original value

2. increased by 100%

3. increased to 3 times the original value

4. increased to 9 times its original value

An oil of kinematic viscosity 0.25 stokes flows through a pipe of diameter 10cm. The flow is critical at a velocity of

1.0.72 m/s 2.5.0 m/s 3.7.2 m/s 4.0.5 m/s

Oil of viscosity 1.5 Pa.s and relative density 0.9 flows through a circular pipe of diameter 5cm with a mean velocity of 1.2 m/s. The shear stress at the wall in Pa is

1.180 2.144 3.288 4.360

The viscosity of

1. fluids increases with temperature

2. liquids increases with temperature

3. fluids decreases with temperature

4. gases increases with temperature

A U-tube manometer measures

1. absolute pressure at a point

2. local atmospheric pressure

3. difference in total energy between two points

4. difference in pressure between two points

In water jet machining, the water jet is issued through a 0.3mm diameter orifice at a pressure of 400 MPa. THe density of water is 1000 kg/cubic meter. The coefficient of discharge is 1.0. Neglecting all loses during water jet formation through the orifice, the power of the water in kW is _________

1. 75.9

2. 101.2

3. 25.3

4. 50.6

Two identical pipes of length L, diameter D and friction factor f, are connected in parallel between two reservoirs. The size of a pipe of length L and of the same friction factor f, equivalent to the above pipes, is

1.2.0D 2.0.5D 3.1.40D 4.0.87D

When all the conditions are identical, in the case of flow through pipes with heat transfer, the velocity profiles will be identical for:

1. Gas heating and gas cooling

2. Liquid heating and liquid cooling

3. Heating and cooling of any fluid

4. Liquid heating and gas cooling

Minor losses in a pipe flow are those losses

1.which can be neglected always 2.which are insignificantly small 3.caused by local disturbance due to pipe fittings 4.caused by frictional resistance

Two pipelines of equal length and diameter of 20 cm and 30 cm respectively are connected in parallel between two reservoirs. If the friction actor f is the same for both the pipes, the ration of the discharges in the smaller to the larger size of the pipe is

1. 0.444

2. 0.363

3. 0.667

4. 0.137

Bernoulli equation is applicable between any two points

1. in steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid

2. in steady rotational flow of an incompressible fluid

3. in any rotational flow of an incompressible fluid

4. in any type of irrotational flow of a fluid

A perfect fluid (also known as an ideal fluid is)

1.incompressible and frictionless 2.the one which obeys perfect gas laws 3.a real fluid 4.compressive and gasseous

Typical example of a non-Newtonian fluid of pseudoplastic variety is

1.Water 2.Blood 3.Air 4.Printing ink

The fall velocity of a sand grain in water is to be modelled by using particles of the same relative density as sand and a liquid whose kinematic viscosity is 100 times larger than that of water. The diameters of the particles in the model that will have the same fall velocity as the prototype will be

1.100 times larger 2.100 times smaller 3.10 times smaller 4.10 times larger

The potential function exist for

1. irrotional motion of incompressible fluids only

2. for two-dimensional irrotational flow only

3. irrotational motion of fluids whether compressible or incompressible

4. for steady flows only

Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core, the
buoyancy force is which one of the following?

1. downward force =Wm - Wc

2. downward force = Wm + Wc

3. upward force = Wm + Wc

4. upward force = Wm - Wc

The centre of buoyancy of a submerged body

1. coincides with the centre of gravity of the body

2. is always below the centre of gravity of the body

3. coincides with the centroid of the displaced volume of the fluid

4. is always above the centroid of the displaced volume of liquid

A triangular gate with a base width of 2m and a height of 1.5 m lies in a vertical plane. The top vertex of the gate is 1.5m below the surface of a tank which contains oil of specific gravity 0.8. Considering the density of water and acceleration due to gravity to be 1000 kg/cu.m and 9.81 m/s2 respectively, the hydrostatic force (in KN) exerted by the oil on the gate is

1. 4.5

2. 2.5

3. 1.4

4. 3.4

Consider the following statements:
1. If a condensing liquid does not wet a surface drop wise, then condensation will take place on it.
2. Drop wise condensation gives a higher heat transfer rate than filmwise condensation.
3. Reynolds number of condensing liquid is based on its mass flow rate.
4. Suitable coating or vapour additive is used to promote film-wise condensation.
Of these statements:

1. 4 alone is correct

2. 1 and 2 are correct

3. 2, 3 and 4 are correct

4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

The friction factor f in a laminar pipe flow was found to be 0.04.The Reynolds number of the flow was

1.800 2.2000 3.1000 4.1600

The Reynolds number for the flow of oil in a certain pipe is 640. The Darcy-Weisbach friction factor f for the flow is

1. 0.1

2. 0.02

3. 0.064

4. 0.01

In a turbulent flow through a pipe the centreline velocity is 3.61 m/s and the friction factor f=0.002. The mean velocity of the flow in m/s is

1. 3.00

2. 0.96

3. 2.21

4. 4.80

In a steady flow

1. streamlines and pathlines are identical but are different from streakline

2. streakline and pathlines are identical but are different from streamlines

3. streamline, streakline and pathline can all be different from each other

4. none of these options

If B=centre of buoyancy, G=is the centre of gravity and M=metacentre of a floating body, the body will be in stable equilibrium if

1. MG=0

2. M is below G

3. BG=0

4. M is above G

The head loss in 100m length of a 0.1m diameter pipe (f=0.02) carrying water is 10m. The boundary shear stress, in kPa, is

1. 0.0245

2. 0.298

3. 9.79

4. 0.1958

A circular pipe has a diameter of 1m, bed slope of 1in 1000, and Manning’s roughness coefficient equal to 0.01. It may be treated as an open channel flow when it is flowing just full, i.e., the water level just touches the crest. The discharge in this condition is dented by Q(full). Similarly, the discharge when the pipe is flowing half-full, i.e. with a flow depth of 0.5m, is denoted by Q(half). The ratio of Q(full)/ Q(half)

1. 1.414

2. 1

3. 2

4. 4

In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel the sequent depths are 0.25m and 1.25m. The energy loss in this jump is

1. 1.25m

2. 1.0m

3. 0.8m

4. 1.50m

In a two-dimensional, steady, horizontal, uniform laminar flow the shear gradient in the normal direction is equal to

1.the pressure gradient in the normal direction 2.the velocity gradient in the normal direction 3.the velocity gradient in the longitudinal direction 4.the pressure gradient in the direction of flow

In hydraulic modelling of flow pattern around a body submerged in a fluid the non-dimensional number which has to be kept the same in the model and prototype is

1.Reynolds number 2.Strouhal number 3.Froude number 4.Weber number

Which of the following is a dimensionless number:

1.Hazen-William coefficient CH 2.Pipe friction factor f 3.Manning’s coefficient n 4.Chezy coefficient C

The drag force on a body

1.is the component of the resultant force in a direction perpendicular to the direction of gravity 2.is the net pressure force on the body 3.is the net frictional force on the body 4.is the component of the resultant force in the direction of the relative velocity

The lift force on a body

1.is the component of the resultant force in a vertical directions 2.is due to buoyant force 3.is always in the direction of the gravity 4.is the component of the resultant force in a direction normal to relative velocity

The discharge Q in a pipe of know f is estimated by using the head loss hf in a length L and diameter D. If an error of 1% is involved in the measurement of D, the corresponding error in the estimation of Q is

1. 2.5%

2. 1.0%

3. 0.4%

4. 5%

The linear momentum equation applied to a control volume in a flow through a nozzle yielded the resultant reaction force R, on the fluid in the control volume. The force required to keep the nozzle in position is

1.equal to R but opposite in direction 2.the same as R in magnitude and direction 3.equal to the x-component of R 4.equal to R minus the friction force

Hydraulic grade line for flow in a pipe of constant diameter is

1.always above the energy grade line 2.always above the centreline of the pipe 3.always sloping downwards in the direction of the flow 4.coincides with the pipe centreline

For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm when the
nozzle angle is 20⁰, the optimum velocity of steam in m/s is

1. 356

2. 334

3. 711

4. 668

A perfect fluid (also known as an ideal fluid is),

A real fluid

The one which obeys perfect gas laws

Compressive and gaseous

Incompressible and frictionless

Broadly speaking, water is ,

10 times more compressible than steel

80 times more compressible than steel

800 times les compressible than steel

8000 times les compressible than steel

Indicate the incorrect statement:

A flow net ____________________

is applicable to irrotational fluid flow

for a given boundary is the same whether the flow is in one direction or the other

for a given boundary is applicable to one chosen direction of flow; if the flow is reversed the flow net will change

will be so constructed that the size of the mesh is inversely proportional to the local velocity

Bernoulli equation is applicable between any two points,

in any rotational flow of an incompressible fluid

in any type of irrotational flow of a fluid

in steady rotational flow of an incompressible fluid

in steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid

The piezometric head of a flow is

the sum of the velocity head and datum head

the sum of the pressure head and velocity head

the sum of the velocity head, pressure head and datum head

In a flow of a real fluid with no addition of energy

the energy line will be horizontal or sloping upward in the direction of the flow

the energy line can never be horizontal or sloping upward in the direction of the flow

the piezometric line can never be horizontal or sloping downward in the direction of the flow

the centre line of the pipe can never be above the energy line

The total head in a flow is the sum of

potential head and datum head

piezometric head and pressure head

piezometric head and velocity head

piezometric head, velocity head and datum head

The difference between the total head line and the hydraulic grade line represents

the velocity head

the piezometric head

the pressure head

the elevation head

In a pipeline the hydraulic grade line is above the pipe centre line is the longitudinal section at point A and below the pipe centre line at another point B. From this it can be inferred that

vaccum pressure prevail at B

vaccum pressure prevail at A

the flow is from A to B

the flow is from B to A

In a two-dimensional duct flow air flows in the bottom half of the duct with uniform velocity and there is no flow in the upper half. The value of the kinetic energy correction factor for this flow is

2.0

2.25

3.0

4.0

A 15 cm diameter pipe carries a flow of 70 lit/s of an oil (RD=0.75). At a section 12 cm above the datum the pressure is vaccum of 2 cm of mercury. If the kinetic energy correction factor for this section is 1.1,the total head at the section in meters of oil is

0.648

0.728

0.557

0.637

A nozzle direct a liquid jet at an angle of elevation 45 deg. The hydraulic grade line for the jet

coincides with the centre line of the jet

will be horizontal at the level of the jet

will be horizontal at the level of the energy line

coincides with the energy line

The linear momentum equation is based on

Newton’s law of viscosity

Newton’s first law

Newton’s second law

Newton’s third law

A control volume is

the volume of fluid flowing per unit of time

a volume fixed in space

the volume in which a control device is situated

the volume of the fluid controlling device

The line momentum equation is

scalar relation

an approximate relation for engineering analysis

a relation applicable to incompressible fluids only

a vector relation

the same as R in magnitude and direction

equal to R but opposite in direction

equal to the x-component of R

equal to R minus the friction force

A jet of oil (R=0.8) has an area of 0.02 sq.m and a velocity of 10 m/s. If it strikes a plate normally, the force exerted on the plate is

1597 N

1996 N

15665 N

19581 N

A water jet has an area of 0.03 sq.m and impinges normally on a plate. If a force of 1 kN is produced as a result of this impact, the velocity of the jet, in m/s, is

33.4

3.4

5.78

A water jet 0.015 sq.m in area has a velocity of 15 m/s. If this jet impinges normally on a plate which is moving at a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of the jet, the force on the plate due to this impact is

3368 N

2246 N

14907 N

14686 N

A fire hose has a nozzle attached to it and the nozzle discharges a jet of water into the atmosphere at 20 m/s. This places the joint of the nozzle

in compression

in tension

in a state of zero stress

in bending stresses

A two-dimensional jet strikes a fixed two-dimensional plane at 45 deg. To the normal to the plane. This causes the jet to split into two streams whose discharges are in the ratio

1.0

2.41

5.83

1.414

The velocity distribution over one half of a cross section is uniform and is zero over the remaining half. The momentum correction factor for this cross section is

2.0

4.0

1.0

3.0

Hydraulic grade line for flow in a pipe of constant diameter is

always above the centreline of the pipe

always above the energy grade line

always sloping downwards in the direction of the flow

coincides with the pipe centreline

The usual width of parapet walls along Highways in hilly region, is

1.50 cm 2.60 cm 3.70cm 4.80 cm

The head light of vehicles should be such that its lower beam illuminates objects at

1.10 cm 2.20 cm 3.30cm 4.40 cm

In India the modes of transportation, in the order of their importance, are

1.air transport, shipping, roads, railways 2.shipping, roads, railways, air transport 3.roads, railways, air transport, shipping 4.railways, roads, shipping, air transport

Deviation of the alignment of a trace cut may be permitted in areas involving

1.land slides 2.sand dunes 3.dens 4.terrains

If C is basic capacity per lane, V is velocity in km/hour, S is stopping distance plus length of the vehicles in metres, the formula C=1000V/S is applicable to

1.district roads 2.two lane roads 3.two lane roads in one direction 4.two lane roads in two directions

In water bound macadam roads, binding material is

1.sand 2.stone dust 3.cement 4.Brick dust.

Road makers along roads from the edge of a kerb should not be less than

1.45 cm 2.50 cm 3.55 cm 4.60 cm

For the movement of vehicles at an intersection of two roads, without any interference, the type of grade separator generally preferred to, is

1.delta 2.trumpet 3.diamond interchange 4.clover leaf

The total length of a valley formed by two gradients - 3% and + 2% curve between the two tangent points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal acceleration 0.6 m/sec², for a design speed 100 kmph, is

16.0 m

42.3 m

84.6 m

98.4 m

In a shape test of aggregate, which one of the following gives the correct slot for flakiness index of a material passing 50 mm sieve and retained on 40 mm sieve?

25 mm

27 mm

30 mm

32 mm

For a flow of 5.7 MLD (Million Litres per Day) and a detention time of 2 hours, the surface area of a rectangular sedimentation tank to remove all particles having settling velocity of 0.33 mm/s is

20 m²

100 m²

200 m²

400 m²

The moisture content of a clayey soil is gradually decreased from a large value. What will be the correct sequence of the occurrence of the following limits?
1.Shrikage limit

2. Plastic limit

3. Liquid limit

1, 2, 3

2,3,1

3,2,1

1,3,2

If a soil sample of weight 0.18 kg having a volume of 10^-4 m³ and dry unit wt. of 1600 kg/m³ is mixed with 0.02 kg of water, then the water content in the sample will be

30%

25%

20%

15%

Sewage sickness occurs when

sewage contains pathogenic organisms

sewage enters the water supply system

sewers get clogged due to accumulation of solids

voids of soil get closed due to continuous application of sewage on a piece of land

If carbon monoxide is released at the rate of 0.03 m³/min from a gasolene engine and 50 ppm is the threshold limit for an 8-hour exposure, the quantity of air which dilutes the contaminant to a safe level will be

60 m³/min

600 m³/min

600 m³/s

60 m³/s

Which one of the following would help prevent the escape of foul sewer gases from a water closet?

gully trap

p-trap

intercepting trap

anti-siphon trap

What are the phenomena of global warming and acid rain formation attributed to?

SO₂ and CO₂ respectively

CO and SO₂, respectively

CO₂ and SO₂, respectively

CO and CO₂, respectively

Which one of the following types of settling phenomenon can be analysed by the classic sedimentation laws of Newton and Stokes?

Discrete settling

Flocculent settling

Hindered settling

Compression settling

In a design of storm sewers, if the time taken by rain-water to flow from the farthest point of the watershed to the sewer inlet is 't_i' and the time of flow of water from the sewer inlet to the point in the sewer that is under consideration is 't_f', then the time of concentration will be

t_i

t_f

t_i + t_f

t_i or t_f whichever is greater

Among the following, which is/are not pre-treatment unit (s)?

Bar screen and grit chamber

Flow equalization and proportioning tank

Neutralization for pH adjustment tank

Nutrient removal tank

Presence of nitrogen in waste water sample is due to the decomposition of

Carbohydrates

Proteins

Fats

Vitamins

Air binding may occur in

Sewers

Artesian well

Aerator

Filter

In standard penetration test, the splitspoon sampler is penetrated into the soil stratum by giving blows from a drop weight whose weight (in kg) and free fall (in cm) are, respectively,

30 and 60

60 and 30

65 and 75

75 and 65

The void-pressure diagram is shown above. What is the coefficient of compressibility?

0.5 m²/t

0.73 m²/t

0.20 m²/t

0.25 m²/t

According to Boussinesq's theory, the vertical stress at a point in a semi-infinite soil mass depends upon

point load, coordinates of the point and modulus of elasticity of soil

point load, coordinates of the point, modulus of elasticity of soil and its Poisson's ratio

point load and coordinates of the point

point load, coordinates of the point, modulus of elasticity of soil and its density.

As per Terzaghi's equation, the bearing capacity of strip footing resting on cohesive soil (c = 10 kN/m²) for unit depth and unit width (assume N_c as 5.7 ) is

47 kN/m²

57 kN/m²

67 kN/m²

77 kN/m²

A and B are Skempton's pore pressure coefficients. For saturated normally consolidated soils,

A > 1 and B > 1

A > 1 and B < 1

A < 1 and B > 1

A < 1 and B = 1

In a compaction test on a soil sample, if the compaction energy is decreased (γd = maximum dry density, OMC = optimum moisture content)

γd will increase with increase in OMC

γd will decrease with increase in OMC

γd will decrease with decrease in OMC

γd will increase with decrease in OMC

A sand deposit has a porosity of 0.375 and a specific gravity of 2.6, the critical hydraulic gradient for the sand deposit is

2.975

2.225

0.75

Which one of the following states of field compaction of sand deposit truly represents the corrected standard penetration test value: N (corrected) = 27?

Loose

Medium dense

Dense

Very dense

In a particular material, if the modulus of rigidity is equal to the bulk modulus, then the Poisson's ratio will be

1/8

1/4

1/2

Two men, one stronger than the other have to lift a load of 1200 N which is suspended from a light rod of length 3 m. The load is suspended between the two persons positioned at the two ends of the rod. The weaker of the two persons can carry a load up to 400 N only. The distance of the load to be suspended from the stronger person such that the weaker person has the full share of 400 N is

0.5 m

1.0 m

1.5 m

2.0 m

In a plane strain problem in XY plane, the shear strain = 12 x 10^-6, and the normal strain in X and Y direction = 0, For this state of strain, what is the diameter of the Mohr's Circle of strain?

6 x 10^-6

8 x 10^-6

12 x l0^-6

24 x l0^-6

A horizontal fixed beam is fixed at both it ends A and B. During loading, the right support sinks by an amount δ. Flexural rigidity of the beam is uniform and is equal to EI. Length of the beam is L. What is the moment developed at the centre of the beam due to sinking of the support?

6 EI δ/L²

3 EI δ/L²

-6 EI δ/L²

A horizontal beam is hinged at 'R' and supported on rollers at the end 'S'. It carries inclined loads. To determine the support reactions, the funicular polygon

must start only from the support 'S'

must start only from the support 'R'

could start only from anywhere on the vertical line through 'S'

could start from anywhere between 'R' and 'S'

The cross sections of the beams of equal length are a circle and a square whose permissible bending stress is same under same maximum bending. The ratio of their flexural weights is,

1.118

1.338

1.228

1.108

A rectangular log of wood is floating in water with a load of 100 N at its centre. The maximum shear force in the wooden log is

50 N at each end

50 N at the centre

100 N at the centre

100 N at the each end

The influence line diagram for the force in member 'a' of the truss shown below is given by

Which one of the following conditions, both elastic and plastic methods of analysis of indeterminate structures have to satisfy

yield condition

mechanism condition

equilibrium

compatibility of deformation

The degree of static indeterminacy of the rigid frame having two internal hinges as shown in the figure below, is

The outstand of the flange of built-up beams from the line of connection should not extend beyond:(where T is the thickness of flange and t_w is the thickness of web)

10 T

85 T

180t_w

In a diamond riveting, for a plate of width land rivet diameter 'd', the efficiency of the joint is given by

(b - d)/b

(b / 2d)/b

(b - d)/d

(b - 2d)/d

The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal to 37 mm plus (where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate).

2 t

4 t

6 t

8 t

The spans are considered approximately equal, if the longest span does not exceed the shortest span by more than

10%

15%

20%

Rolled steel Tee-sections are used

as columns

as built up sections to resist axial tension

with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks

as built up sections to resist compression

For steel members not exposed to weather, the thickness of steel should not be less than

4.5 mm

6 mm

8 mm

10 mm

If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders without horizontal stiffeners, are spaced at a distance not less than

0.15 d

0.22 d

0.33 d

0.44 d

The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of compression member carrying dead and superimposed load is

180

200

250

350

As the percentage of steel increases,

depth of neutral axis decreases

depth of neutral axis increases

lever arm increases

lever arm decreases

A reinforced concrete structure has to be constructed along a sea coast. The minimum grade of concrete to be used as per IS : 456-2000

M 15

M 20

M 25

M 30

The lateral ties in a reinforced concrete rectangular column are used to :

avoid the buckling of the longitudinal steel under compression

provide adequate shear capacity

provide adequate confinement to concrete

reduce the axial deformation of the column

The maximum allowable compressive stress corresponding to lateral buckling in a discretely laterally supported symmetrical I beam does not depend upon :

the modulus of elasticity

the radius of gyration about the minor axis

the span length of the beam

the ratio of overall depth of thickness of the flange

If the diameter of the main reinforcement in a slab is 16 mm, the concrete cover to main bars is

12 mm

14 mm

16 mm

18 mm

In the zone of R.C.C. beam where shear stress is less than 5 kg/cm², nominal reinforcement is provided at a pitch of

one-half lever arm of the section

one-third lever arm of the section

lever arm of the section

one fourth lever arm of the section

For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied, if the ratio of its span to its overall depth does not exceed

The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio of the end and intermediate spans is kept

0.7

0.8

0.9

1.0

An R.C.C. beam of 6 m span is 30 cm wide and has a lever arm of 55 cm. If it carries a U.D.L. of 12 t per m and allowable shear stress is 5 kg/cm², the beam

is safe in shear

is safe with stirrups

is safe with stirrups and inclined bars

needs revision of section

Columns may be made of plain concrete, if their unsupported lengths do not exceed their least lateral dimension

two times

three times

four times

five times

The zone in which transverse bending is likely to occur may be obtained by drawing a line from the faces of the column making an angle θ° with horizontal, where θ° is

30°

45°

60°

90°

A reinforced concrete column contains longitudinal steel equal to 1 percent of net cross-sectional area of the column. Assume modular ratio as 10. The loads carried (using the elastic theory) by the longitudinal steel and the net area of concrete, are P_s and P_c respectively. The ratio P_s/P_c expressed as percent is

1.1

0.1

A model of a weir made to a horizontal scale of 1/40 and vertical scale of 1/9 discharges 1 litre/sec. Then the discharge in the prototype is estimated as

10 lps

108 lps

1080 lps

10800 lps

In a laminar boundary layer, the velocity distribution can be assumed to be given, in usual notations, as

Which one of the following is the correct expression for the displacement thickness δ* for this boundary layer?

δ* = δ

δ* = δ/2

δ* = δ/4

δ* = δ/6

The head loss in a pipe of diameter d, carrying oil at a flow rate Q over a distance l is h. The pipe is replaced by another with half the diameter, all other things remaining the same. The head loss in this case will be

0.5 h

2.0 h

8.0 h

32.0 h

A very tiny sphere is settling down in a viscous liquid at Reynolds number = 0.2. Its drag coefficient is equal to

320

120

If the Froude number of flow in an open channel is more than 1.0, then the flow is said to be

critical

shooting

streaming

transitional

When two moving bodies collide with each other, their velocity of separation bears a constant ratio to their velocity of approach. This ratio is termed as coefficient of

collidity

friction

restitution

permeability

The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25 m. The material of the dam has a specific gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as an elementary profile ignoring uplift. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam?

64 m

40 m

164 m

80 m

The ordinate of the Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment at any time t, is

The slope of the 1-hour unit hydrograph at that time

The slope of the direct runoff unit hydrograph at that time

Difference in the slope of the S-curve and 1-hour unit hydrograph

The slope of the S-curve with effective rainfall intensity of 1 cm/hr

For an anisotropic soil, permeability in x and y directions are k_x and k_y respectively in a two dimensional flow. The effective permeability k_eq for the soil is given by

k_x + k_y

k_x/k_y

(k_x² + k_y²)^1/2

(k_xk_y)^1/2

Flow at critical depth takes place in an open channel,

for a given specific energy, discharge is maximum

for a given discharge, specific energy is maximum

discharge is minimum for a given specific energy

discharge is maximum for a given specific force