Critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural frequency of the system in
0.1
2.0.2
3.0.5
4.0.7
In a flywheel, the safe stress is 25.2 MN/m2 and the density is 7 g/cm3.Then what is the maximum peripheral velocity (in m/s)?
The balancing weights are introduced in planes parallel to the plane of rotation of the disturbing mass. To obtain complete dynamic balance, the minimum number of balancing weights to be introduced in different planes is
Critical damping is a function of
Whirling speed of the shaft is the speed at which
For steady state forced vibrations, the phase lag at resonance is
In reciprocating engines primary forces
A governor is said to be isochronous when the equilibrium speed for all radii of rotation of the balls within the working range
In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is
The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be
A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a left turn in a curved path.
If the engine rotates in the same direction as that of wheels, then due to the
centrifugal forces
the reaction on the front wheels increases and on the rear wheels decreases
the reaction on the rear wheels increases and on the front wheels
decreases
A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced by
two masses placed at a fixed distance apart. The two masses form an equivalent
dynamical system, if
the sum of two masses is equal to the total mass of the body
the centre of gravity of the two masses coincides with that of the body
the sum of mass moment of inertia of the masses about their centre of
gravity is equal to the mass moment of inertia of the
body
The maximum fluctuation of energy is the
The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of
the crank with the line of stroke is
90°
180°
360°
balancing partially the revolving masses
balancing partially the reciprocating masses
best balancing of engines
all of the above
A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8 kgm2 fluctuates by 30 rpm
for a fluctuation in energy of 1936 Joules. The mean speed of the flywheel is
(in rpm)
600
900
968
2940
In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod length to the crank
radius is kept very large in order to
minimise the effect of secondary forces
have perfect balancing
start the locomotive quickly
The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination
of stroke ( θ ) is equal to
45° and 135°
90° and 135°
135° and 225°
In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along the
perpendicular to the line of stroke, is known as
tractive force
hammer blow
4.blowing
If the ratio of frequency of excitation to the natural frequency of
vibrations is 1.414, then the transmissibility of vibration will the
1
2.2
3.0.5
4.0
In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration
The steering of a ship means
A shaft carrying three rotors will have
A system in dynamic balance implies that
In a spring mass vibrating system, the natural frequency of vibration is reduced to half the value when a second spring is added to the first spring in series. Determine the stiffness of the second in terms of that of the first spring.
What is the minimum damping ratio for an underdamped system such that
its overshoot is limited to 10 percent?
0.59
0.69
1
4.1.59
If magnification factor is high for constant damping factor
the excitation frequency may get resonance or near the resonance
the excitation frequency may be higher than resonance
the excitation frequency may be lower than resonance
none of these
What type of vibration is predominant in the beam structure?
Transverse
longitudinal
torsional
none of these
Non-coplaner concurrent forces are those forces which
The principle of transmissibility of forces states that, when a force acts upon a body, its effect is
The angular velocity (in rad / s) of a body rotating at N revolutions per minute is
The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and takes place in the same direction in which the force acts. This statement is known as
The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its position, is known as
A couple produces
A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of velocity after rebounding, the ball will rise to a height of
The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins to move down the plane, is called
The
mechanism used in a shaping machine is
a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs
a
closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs
a closed
4-bar chain having 2 revolute pair and 2 sliding pairs
an
inversion of the single slider-crank chain
The
lengths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs only are p, q, r
and s units. Given that p < q < r < s. Which of these links should be the fixed one, for
obtaining a "double crank" mechanism?
links
of length 'p'
links of length 'q'
links of length 'r'
links of length 's'
The
number of degrees of freedom of a planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple
revolute joint is
1
2.2
3.3
4.4
In a four- bar linkage, S denotes the shortest link length,
L is the longest link length, P and Q are the lengths of other two links. At
least one of the three moving links will rotate by 360 degree if
S +
L less than or equal to P + Q
S +
L > to P + Q
S +
P less than or equal to L + Q
S +
P > to L + Q
Mobility of a statically indeterminate structure is
Less
than equal to -1
0
1
4.Greater
than or equal to 2
For a four bar linkage in toggle position, the value of
mechanical advantage is?
0
2.0.5
3.1
4. infinite
The
mechanism used in a shaping machine is
a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs
a closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs
a closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute pair and 2 sliding pairs
an inversion of the single slider-crank chain
The
lengths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs only are p, q, r
and s units. Given that p < q < r < s. Which of these links should be the fixed one, for
obtaining a "double crank" mechanism?
links
of length p
links
of length q
links
of length r
links
of length s
In order to draw the acceleration diagram, it is necessary
to determine the
Coriolis component of acceleration in the case of
crank
and slotted lever quick return mechanism
slider-crank
mechanism
four bar mechanism
pantograph
The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with
respect to another point on the same link is
parallel
to the link
perpendicular to the link joining the points
at
45 degree to the link joining the points
at
30 degree
Ball
and socket forms a
turning
pair
rolling
pair
sliding
pair
Spherical Pair
A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that
the relative motion between link is completely constrained, is called as
structure
mechanism
kinematic
chain
inversion
which of the following is an inversion of slider
crank chain?
beam
engine
watt
indicator
elliptical
trammel
whitworth quick return motion mechanism
In
SHM motion, acceleration is proportional
to
velocity
displacement
rate
of change of velocity
stroke
For a SHM motion of the follower, a cosine curve represents
displacement
velocity
acceleration
4.jerk
cam
size depends on
base
circle
prime circle
pitch circle
outer circle
Transmission
angle is the angle between
Input
link and coupler
Input
link and fixed link
Output link and coupler
Output
link and fixed link
A
fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having 50 teeth. The
two gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by the smaller gear
for one revolution of arm about the centre of bigger gear is
2
2.4
3.3
4.5
In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.
The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is
If a number of forces are acting at a point, theirresultant will be inclined at an angle θ with the horizontal, such that
The unit of energy in S.I. units is
Whenever a force acts on a body and the body undergoes a displacement, then
The rate of doing work is known as
The resultant of the two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P. Then
When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess
The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies
The static friction
Which of the following are vector quantities?
Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?
if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sidesof a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
none of the above.
The 2-m-long bar is confined to move in the horizontal and vertical slots A and B. If the velocity of the slider block at A is 6 m/s, determine the bar's angular velocity and the velocity of block B at the instant = 60°.
angular velocity of B = 3.46 rad/s , vB = 3.46 m/s
angular velocity of B = 3.00 rad/s , vB = 3.00 m/s
angular velocity of B = 3.00 rad/s , vB = 6.00 m/s
angular velocity of B = 6.00 rad/s , vB = 10.39 m/s
A race car starting from rest moves along a straight track with an acceleration as shown in the graph (where for t 10 s, a = 8 m/s2). Determine the time t for the car to reach a speed of 50 m/s.
t = 11.25 s
t = 6.25 s
t = 12.5 s
t = 3.53 s
A two-stage missile is fired vertically from rest with an acceleration as shown in the graph. In 15 s the first stage A burns out and the second stage B ignites. How fast is the rocket moving and how far has it gone at t = 20 s? How fast is the missile moving and how far has it gone at t = 20 s?
v = 430 m/s, s = 4.30 km
v = 360 m/s, s = 3.60 km
v = 500 m/s, s = 5.00 km
A package is dropped from the plane which is flying with a constant horizontal velocity of vA = 150 ft/s at a height h = 1500 ft. Determine the radius of curvature of the path of the package just after it is released from plane at A.
9860 ft
3000 ft
1500 ft
8510 ft
The v-s graph for a rocket sled is shown. Determine the acceleration of the sled when s = 100 m and s = 175 m.
a100 = 3.75 m/s2, a175 = -1.250 m/s2
a100 = 11.11 m/s2, a175 = -25.0 m/s2
a100 = 0.333 m/s2, a175 = -1.000 m/s2
a100 = 33.3 m/s2, a175 = -25 m/s2
The pilot of flighter plane F is following 1.5 km behind the pilot of bomber B. Both planes are originally traveling at 120 m/s. In an effort to pass the bomber, the pilot in F gives his plane a constant acceleration of 12 m/s2. Determine the speed at which the pilot in the bomber sees the pilot of the fighter plane pass at the start of the passing operation the bomber is decelerating at 3 m/s2. Neglect the effect of any turning.
vF/B = 150 m/s
vF/B = 367 m/s
vF/B = 90 m/s
vF/B = 212 m/s
A car, initially at rest, moves along a straight road with constant acceleration such that it attains a velocity of 60 ft/s when s = 150 ft. Then after being subjected to another constant acceleration, it attains a final velocity of 100 ft/s when s = 325 ft. Determine the average velocity and average acceleration of the car for the entire 325-ft displacement.
The motorcyclist attempts to jump over a series of cars and trucks and lands smoothly on the other ramp, i.e., such that his velocity is tangent to the ramp at B. Determine the launch speed vA necessary to make the jump.
vA = 11.90 m/s
vA = 11.07 m/s
vA = 16.83 m/s
vA = 15.66 m/s
A ball thrown vertically upward from the top of a building with an initial velocity of vA = 35 ft/s. Determine (a) how high above the top of the building the ball will go before it stops at B, (b) the time tAB it takes to reach its maximum height, and (c) the total time tAC needed for it to reach the ground at C from the instant it is released.
h = 62.4 ft, tAB = 3.57 s, tAC = 7.14 s
h = 19.02 ft, tAB = 1.087 s, tAC = 2.17 s
h = 19.02 ft, tAB = 1.087 s, tAC = 3.30 s
h = 62.4 ft, tAB = 3.57 s, tAC = 8.56 s
As the instant shown, cars A and B are traveling at speeds of 20 mi/h and 45 mi/h, respectively. If B is acceleration at 1600 mi/h2 while A maintains a constant speed, determine the magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of A with respect to B.
vA/B = 33.9 mi/h, aA/B = 1600 mi/h2
vA/B = 60.8 mi/h, aA/B = 1600 mi/h2
vA/B = 33.9 mi/h, aA/B = 1426 mi/h2
vA/B = 60.8 mi/h, aA/B = 1426 mi/h2
A boy throws a snowball such that it strikes the wall of the building at the maximum height of its trajectory. If it takes t = 1.5 s to travel from A to B, determine the velocity vA at which it was thrown, the angle of release , and the height h.
vA = 12.00 ft/s, = 24.4E, h = 21.7 ft
vA = 49.8 ft/s, = 76.0E, h = 39.7 ft
vA = 36.3 ft/s, = 24.4E, h = 18.2 ft
vA = 48.3 ft/s, = 65.6E, h = 39.7 ft
For a short time the missile moves along the parabolic path y = (18 - 2x2) km. If motion along the ground is measured as x = (4t - 3) km, where t is in seconds, determine the magnitudes of the missile's velocity and acceleration when t = 1 s.
v = 5.66 km/s, a = 4.0 km/s2
v = 16.49 km/s, a = 64.0 km/s2
v = 16.00 km/s, a = 22.6 km/s2
v = 4.00 km/s, a = 16.03 km/s2
A chain that has a negligible mass is draped over a sprocket which has a mass of 2 kg and a radius of gyration of kO = 50 mm. If the 4-kg block A is released from rest in the position shown, s = 1 m, determine the angular velocity which the chain imparts th the sprocket when s = 2 m.
44.3 rad/s
39.6 rad/s
41.8 rad/s
59.1 rad/s
The 50-kg cylinder has an angular velocity of 30 rad/s when it is brought into contact with the horizontal surface at C. If the coefficient of friction is c = 0.2, determine how long it takes for the cylinder to stop spinning. What force is developed at the pin A during this time? The axis of the cylinder is connected to two symmetrical links. (Only AB is shown.) For the computation, neglect the weight of the links.
t = 1.529 s, A = 0
t = 3.06 s, A = 0
t = 1.529 s, A = 49.1 N
t = 3.06 s, A = 49.1 N
The uniform pole has a mass of 15 kg and falls from rest when = 90° until it strikes the edge at A, = 60°. If the pole then begins to pivot about this point after contact, determine the pole's angular velocity just after the impact. Assume that the pole does not slip at B as it falls until it strikes A.
angular velocity = 1.146 rad/s
angular velocity = 0.537 rad/s
angular velocity = 2.15 rad/s
angular velocity = 1.528 rad/s
A cord of negligible mass is wrapped around the outer surface of the 2-kg disk. If the disk is released from rest, determine its angular velocity in 3 s.
183.9 rad/s
735 rad/s
245 rad/s
263 rad/s
The irregular area has a moment of inertia about the AA axis of 35 (106) mm4. If the total area is 12.0(103) mm2, determine the moment of inertia if the area about the BB axis. The DD axis passes through the centroid C of the area.
IBB = 5.00(106 ) mm4
IBB = 17.00(106 ) mm4
IBB = 16.80(106 ) mm4
IBB = 55.4(106 ) mm4
The slender 200-kg beam is suspended by a cable at its end as shown. If a man pushes on its other end with a horizontal force of 30 N, determine the initial acceleration of its mass center G, the beam's angular acceleration, and the tension in the cable AB.
aG = 0, = 0.225 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN
aG = 0.0750 m/s2, = 0.1125 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN
aG = 0, = 0.1125 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN
aG = 0.1500 m/s2, = 0.225 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN
The
radial distance of a tooth from pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is
called
dedundum
addendum
clearance
4.working depth
The
module is reciprocal of
diametrical
pitch
circular
pitch
pitch diameter
pressure
angle
The
condition for correct gearing is
pitch
line velocities of teeth be same
radius of curvature of two profile be same
common
normal to the pitch surface cuts the line of centres at a fixed point
pitch
line velocities of teeth different
Interference
can be avoided in involute gears with 20 degree pressure angle by
cutting
involute correctly
using
as small number of teeth as possible
using
more than 20 teeth
using
more than 8 teeth
In simple gear train, if the number of idle gears is odd,
then the motion of driven gear will
be same as that of driving gear
be opposite as that of driving gear
depend upon the number of teeth on the driving gear
depend upon the number of teeth on the driven gear
The train value of gear is
equal to velocity ration of a gear train
reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train
always greater that unity
always less than unity
In a gear train, when the axes of the shafts, over which the
gears are mounted, move relative to a fixed axis is called
epicyclic gear train
reverted gear train
compound gear train
simple gear train
A differential gear in automobile is used to
reduce the speed
assist in changing in speed
provide jerk free movement of vehicle
help in turning
The angle between the direction of the follower motion and a
normal to the pitch curve is called
pitch angle
prime angle
base angle
pressure angle
The following is not
included in title block of drawing sheet.
Size of sheet
Which of the following represent reducing scale?
In first angle projection method, object is assumed to be placed in
Metric thread of 10mm diameter is represented by
In a radial cam, the follower moves
in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
in a direction parallel to cam axis
in any direction irrespective of the cam axis
along the cam axis
Maximum material condition
Machined material condition
Maximum machined indication
Machine mark indication
A radial follower is one
That reciprocates in the guides
that oscillates
in which the follower translates along an axis passing through the cam centre of rotation
translates
This is the theoretically exact size from which limits of size are determined:
Actual Size
Dimensioned size
Production size
Basic size
offset is provided to a cam follower mechanism to
minimise the side thrust
accelerate
avoid jerk
reduced the noise
Acceptable parts must not extend beyond this:
Boundary limits
Specification
Tolerances
This practice considers an individual part's dimensions and tolerances and that part's relation to its related parts: |
Applying allowances
Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing
Creating datum references
Angular dimensioning tolerances
These weld symbols have no arrow-side or other-side significance:
Projection or seam weld
Back or backing weld
Surface or groove weld
Flash and upset weld
Welding drawings are a special type of this kind of drawing:
Symbol
Perspective
Assembly
Isometric
For a low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower
should move with
uniform velocity
simple harmonic motion
uniform acceleration and retardation
cycloidal motion
part number
manufacturing material
number of parts needed
all of the above
For high speed engines, the cam and follower should move
with
uniform velocity
simple harmonic motion
uniform acceleration and retardation
cycloidal motion
The title block used on working drawings should include the |
sheet number
line type
layer set
all of the above
The text used on a typical detail sheet should be
placed horizontally
in bold text
in an architectural text style
none of the above
Phantom
hidden
dashed
center
which of the following displacement diagrams should be
chosen for better dynamic performance of cam follower motion
simple harmonic motion
parabolic motion
cycloidal motion
tangent
It is customary for the first sheet of a working drawing set to include |
a parts list
exploded assembly
assembled assembly
The thread note for a typical bolt will include the |
A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that
the relative motion between the linkage is completely constrained is called as
structure
mechanism
kinematic chain
inversion
The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degree
of freedom is equal to
0
1
3.2
4.-1
In a four bar chain or quadric cycle
each of the four pairs is turning pair
one is a turning pair and three sliding pairs
three are turning pairs and one is sliding pair
all are sliding pairs
This is a conical-shaped recess around a hole, often used to receive a tapered screw head:
Boss
Spotface
Counterbore
Countersink
This is an angled surface used on cylinders to make them easier to handle:
Fillet
Taper
Chamfer
Lug
These are used to attach parts to a cylinder so they won't turn on it:
Lugs and bearings
Keyseats and bearings
Knurls and keys
Keys and keyways/keyseats
Lug
Chamfer
Spotface
This is a hollow cylinder that is often used as a protective sleeve or guide or as a bearing:
Lug
Chamfer
4.Knurl
This is a rounded exterior blend between surfaces:
Fillet
Round
Taper
Chamfer
The total number of instantaneous centres for a mechanism consisting
of n links are
n/2
n
(n-1)/2
[n(n-1)]/2
The instantaneous centres which vary with the configuration
of the mechanism are called
permanent instantaneous centres
fixed instantaneous centres
neither fixed nor permanent instantaneous centres
flexible instantaneous centres
The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears
having parallel teeth to the axis of the shaft. the arrangement is called
spur gearing
helical gearing
bevel gearing
spiral gearing
An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the
same motion as the actual gear is called
addendum circle
dedendum circle
pitch circle
clearance circle
which of the following is incorrect relationship for gears
circular pitch X diametral pitch = 3.14
module = pcd/No of teeth
dedundum = 1.157 module
addendum = 2.157 module
Cam size depends on
The maximum value of pressure angle in case of cam is kept as
Consider the following pairs
1. pair of gear in mesh
2. belt and pulley
3. cylinder and pistonn
4. cam and follower
Among these, the higher pairs are
A cam mechanism imparts following motion
The contact ratio for gear is
Module of a gear is ( T- number of teeth; D-Diameter of the gear)
The type of gears used to connect two non parallel and non intersecting shafts is
Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the
The Kutzbach criterion for determining the number of degrees of freedom (n) is (where l = number of links, j = number of joints and h = number of higher pairs)
Any point on a link connecting double slider chain will trace a
The coriolis component of acceleration leads the sliding velocity by
which of the gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in small space?
In order to draw the acceleration diagram, it is necessary to determine the
Coriolis component of acceleration in the case of
which of the gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in small space?
A term used to describe the concept of perfect form at MMC is
datum reference frame
the envelope principle
departure from MMC
None of the above
Which of the following is descriptive of the datum reference frame?
six degrees of freedom
located based on the functionality of the part
three orthogonal planes
all of the above
A vast majority of functional gages are made to check _________ tolerances
position
runout
circularity
flatness
The single most valuable, flexible, and versatile geometric control is
concentricity
position
perpendicularity
straightness
datum, datum feature
datum feature, datum
datum control, datum feature
none of the above
weigh the least
weigh the most
have the straightest and flattest elements
have its largest allowable tolerance
5 times
10 times
50 times
100 times
The most useful secondary datum feature can be
a hole that is perpendicular to the primary datum
a set of straight parallel grooves.
circular features parallel to the primary datum
any flat feature perpendicular to the primary datum
The number of variables used in locating a part in space are referred to as
three degrees of freedom
four degrees of freedom
six degrees of freedom
eight degrees of freedom
All geometric form controls are variations and combinations of
straightness
cylindricity
flatness
roundness
R
2.O
3.Ø
W
Which symbol is used with angular dimensions?
R
°
Ø
W
In _________________ dimensioning, a datum is established for each Cartesian coordinate direction.
baseline
symmetric
hole basis
none of the above
In current ANSI/ASME standards, a _____________ is indicated by a 'V' shaped symbol
counterbore
datum surface
countersink
drill
A limited length or area (such as a polished end of shaft) is indicated with a _____________ line.
hidden
Chain
3.Section
4.Dimension
| As per standards, a blind hole dimension would have to contain which designation? |
DP
2.THRU
3.C'BORE
4.CSK
As per standards, a clearance hole dimension would have to contain which designation?
DP
2.THRU
3.C'BORE
4.CSK
The _________________ of an external feature is the upper limit.
maximum material condition
runnout
minimum material condition
allowance
The _________________ of an internal feature is the upper limit.
maximum material condition
runnout
minimum material condition
allowance
The total amount a dimension may vary and is the difference between the maximum and minimum limits is called _______
tolerance
limits
fit
offset
intervention fit
clearance fit
transition fit
geometric fit
A titleblock contains all of the following information, except:
name and address of the company
parts list
drawing sheet size letter designation
drawing number
An assembly drawing normally consists of all of the following pieces, except:
parts drawn in their operating position
detail numbers of the parts
engineering change orders
bill of materials
Which fastening method uses the shape of the components to hold them together.
mechanical fastening
bonding
forming
none of the above
What is the tool used to form external threads?
crest
die
chamfer
tap
What defines the distance a screw will travel when rotated 360 degrees?
crest
2.root
3.pitch
4.lead
All of the following are part of the English thread specification, except:
thread form
major diameter
tap drill
class of fit
All of the following are part of a metric thread specification, except:
general purpose tolerance
pitch
nominal size
thread series
Which type of threaded fastener was designed to prevent rotation between parts?
bolt
2.set screw
3.stud
4.cap screw
All of the following are part of the basic weld symbol, except:
weld temperature
leader line and arrow
dimensions
tail
When constructing an assembly model using 3-D solid modeling software, the assembly model normally begins with
In solid modeling software, defining the geometric relations between components in a 3-D assembly model is primarily done with ____________ and ___________ tools.
feature & coordinate plane
mate & align
instance & component
parallel & perpendicular
What is Maximum Material Condition for Hole and Pin ?
0.515, 0.500
2.0.500,0.515
3.0.515,0.495
4.0.540,0.495
What is the LMC for Hole and Pin ?
0.515, 0.495
2.0.540, 0.495
3.0.515, 0.500
4.0.495, 0.540
What is the geometric tolerance for Hole and Pin ?
0.1, 0.05
2.0.01, 0.005
0.005,0.01
0.1,0.5
What material condition modifier is specified in the above figure for Hole and Pin ?
MMC, LMC
2.LMC, MMC 3.MMC, MMC 4.LMC, LMC
What datum feature(s) control(s) perpendicularity for Hole and Pin ?
A,B
2.A,A
3.B,B
4.None of the above
What datum feature(s) control(s) location for Hole and Pin ?
B&C, B&C
2.A&C, B&C
B&C, A&C
A&C,A&C
Conventional representation of Aluminium and its alloys are illustrated as
Conventional representation of Lead, Zinc, Tin are illustrated as
Conventional representation of cork, linoleum are illustrated as
Conventional representation of a mixture of cement, sand and gravel is illustrated as
What is the conventional representation of the figure shown in figure below.
None of the above
What is the conventional representation of the figure shown in figure below
What is the conventional representation of the figure shown in figure below
What is the conventional representation of the figure shown in figure below
What is the conventional representation of spur gear?
This type of section is limited by a break line:
Removed section
Revolved section
Broken-out section
Half section
If a client of yours is having difficulty visualizing a design, what type of drawing would be the easiest to understand?
axonometric
three-view orthographic
one-view orthographic
bimetric
Which of the following is not a pictorial drawing?
isometric
multiview
perspective
axonometric
A typical set of mechanical working drawings includes
exploded assembly
part details
all the above
In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of
A transmission shaft includes
Slenderness ratio is the ratio of
Each screen point is referred to as .........................
Resolution
Pixel
Persistence
Dot Pitch
Which of the following line algorithms used integer only arithmetic to rasterize lines?
Bresenham’s Line Algorithm
DDA Line Algorithm
FFTW Line Algorithm
All the answer
The purpose of refreshing a CRT is ..........................
To avoid flickering
To maintain steady picture
To avoid fading of pixels
All the answer
Which of the following is not an object-space hidden surface removal algorithm?
Back-Face Culling
Depth Buffer
Painter’s Algorithm
All the answer
The main function of CAD is
CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________.
During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be
The default position of the UCS icon is positioned at ________ on the AutoCAD grid.
CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________.
The advantage of implementing CAD is to
In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control
Interpolation in the controller refers to control of which one of the following in a CNC machine?
Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by
synchronous motors
2. induction motors 3. stepper motors 4. servo-motors.During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be
The basic transformations include
Translation
Rotation
Scaling
All the answer
The transformation in which an object is moved in a minimum distance path from one position to another is called
Rotation
Replacement
Translation
Scaling
Forming products of transformation matrices is often referred as
Concatenation
Composition
both a&b
only a
The .............. combines the volumes occupied by overlapping 3D objects using set operations
CSG method
B-rep method
Sweep representation
All the answer
................... is created by revolution of a circle about an axis lying in its plane.
Sphere
Ellipsoid
Torus
Cylinder
The point about which an object is rotated is called ...................
Fixed point
Central point
Pivot point
None
A surface of revolution is generated by a .................. of a 2D curve.
Translational sweep
Rotational sweep
union
intersection
Identify line clipping algorithms from the following
Cohen- Sutherland algorithm
Liang-Barsky clipping
Nicholl-Lee-Nicholl clipping
All the answer
The transformation in which the dimension of an object are changed relative to a specified fixed point is called
Rotation
Reflection
Translation
Scaling
With incremental tool positioning, ____.
each tool movement is made with reference to the last tool position
all tool movement is measured from a fixed point or origin
all tool movement is measured from a zero point
No tool Movement
By using CIM to control all phases of manufacturing, firms hope to reap what benefits?
Increased productivity
Improved quality
Enhanced flexibility
All of the answer
Which type of model is likely to be created with a rapid prototyping system?
Mathematical model
Wireframe model
Surface model
Scale model
Which of the following process technologies is associated with low volume and high variety?
Flexible manufacturing systems
Dedicated systems
Flexible transfer lines
Computer numerically controlled machines
What is the name of a system which brings together several technologies into a coherent system?
Focused integration systems
Portable manufacturing systems
Flexible manufacturing systems
Automated integration systems
Which of the following is not true of computer numerically controlled (CNC) machines?
They can ‘learn’ from process errors.
They can eliminate operator error.
They can give better productivity to the process.
They give more accuracy and precision to the process.
What do Flexible Manufacturing systems (FMS) do?
Moves and manipulates products, parts or tolls
Co-ordinates the whole process of manufacturing and manufactures a part, component or product
Moves materials between operations
Completely manufactures a range of components without significant human intervention during the processing
A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any relative
motion between the journal and the bearing is called
Zero film bearing
boundary lubricated bearing
Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
hydrostatic lubricated bearing
In a boundary lubricated bearing, there is a ................ of
lubricant between the journal and the bearing
Thick film
thin film
zero film
solid film
When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and heavy
impacts, the bearing characteristic number should be ............... the
bearing modulus.
5 times
10 times
15 times
20 times
If Z =
Absolute viscosity of the lubricant in kg/m-s, N = Speed of the journal
in r.p.m., and p =Bearing pressure in N/mm2, then the bearing
characteristic number is
Zp/n
Zn/p
Z/pn
pn/Z
The ball bearings are usually made from
Low carbon steel
medium carbon steel
high speed steel
chrome nickel steel
In radial bearings, the load acts
Along the axis of rotation
parallel
to the axis of rotation
Perpendicular to the axis of rotation
in any direction
When the length of the journal is less than the diameter of the journal,
then the bearing is said to be a
short bearing
long bearing
long bearing
square
bearing
The angular
contact ball bearing can be used for
Radial load only
axial load only
both radial and axial loads
to adjust for misalignments
A bearing is designated by the number 305. It means that a bearing is of
Light series with bore of 25 mm
medium series with bore of 25 mm
Heavy series with bore of 25 mm
extra light series with width of 25 mm
The spherical roller bearing can be used for
Radial load only
axial load only
both radial and axial loads
to adjust for misalignments
If the centre distance of the mating gears having
involute teeth is increased, then the pressure angle
increases
decreases
remains unchanged
none of these
Lewis
equation in spur gears is applied
only
to the pinion
only
to the gear
to
stronger of the pinion or gear
to
weaker of the pinion or gear
In helical gears, the distance between similar
faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the pitch cylinders normal to the
teeth, is called
normal pitch
axial pitch
diametral pitch
module
The root angle of a bevel gear is equal to
pitch angle – addendum angle
pitch angle + addendum angle
pitch angle – dedendum angle
pitch angle + dedendum angle
The
contact ratio for gears is
zero
less
than one
greater
than one
none
of these
The
allowable static stress for steel gears is approximately __________of the
ultimate tensile stress.
one-fourth
one-third
one-half
double
When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch
angles connect two shafts whose axes intersect at right angle, then they are
known as
angular bevel gears
crown bevel gears
internal bevel gears
mitre gears
When the spiral angle of a bevel gear is zero, it is
called as_________
crown gear
zerol bevel gear
meter gear
spiral bevel gear
The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate
small particles of dust, grit etc., without scoring the material of the
journal, is called
bondability
embeddability
comformability
fatigue strength
The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have
............ coefficient of friction.
low
high
medium
zero
In case of a multiple disc clutch, if n1 are the number
of discs on the driving shaft and n2 are the number of the
discs on the driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contact surfaces will be
n1 + n2
n1 + n2 – 1
n1 + n2 + 1
none of these
The cone clutches have become obsolete because of
small cone angles
exposure to dirt and dust
difficulty in disengaging
all of these
A jaw clutch is essentially a
positive action clutch
cone clutch
friction clutch
disc clutch
Total slip will occur in a belt drive when
angle of rest is zero
angle of creep is greater than angle of rest
angle of rest is greater than angle of creep
angle of creep is zero
The basic load rating of a ball bearing is
the maximum static radial load that can be applied without causing any
plastic deformation of bearing components.
the radial load at which 90% of the group of apparently identical
bearings run for one million revolutions before the first evidence of failure.
the maximum radial load that can be applied during operation without any
plastic deformation of bearing components.
a combination of radial and axial
loads that can be applied without any plastic deformation.
The difference between tensions on the tight and slack sides of a belt
drive is 3000 N. if the belt speed is 15 m/s, the transmitted power in kW is
45
22.5
90
100
The ratio of tension on the tight side to that on the slack side in a
flat belt drive is
proportional to the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle
an exponential function of the product of coefficient of
friction and lap angle
proportional to the lap angle
proportional to the coefficient of friction
A 1.5 kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min, it is to be connected
to a stirrer running at 36 rev/min. The gearing arrangement suitable for this
application is
Differential gear
helical gear
spur gear
worm gear
Elasticity
endurance
strength
toughness
If a load W is
applied instantaneously on a bar, then the stress induced in bar will
Be independent of
ration of mass of load W to mass of bar (γ)
increase with
increase in γ
decrease with
decrease in γ
Straining
fatigue
creep
impact loading
In testing a material
for endurance strength, it is subjected to
Static load
dynamic load
impact load
completely reversed
load
Guest’s theory of
failure is applicable for following type of materials
Brittle
ductile
elastic
plastic.
With the percentage
increase of carbon in steel
Strength of steel
decreases
hardness of steel
decrease
brittleness of steel
decrease
ductility of steel
decrease
2%
6.67%
5%
4.8 %
Low
zero
high
could be anything
Abrupt change of
section
all of the above.
Resilience of a
material is important, when it is subjected to
Fatigue
thermal stress
wear and tear
shock loading.
Yield stress /
working stress
tensile stress /
working stress
compressive stress /
working stress
bearing stress / working stress.
Slow plastic
deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as
Creep
fatigue
endurance
Plastic deformation
Two solid circular shafts of radii R1 and R2 are subjected to same torque. The maximum shear stresses developed in the two shafts are 1 t and 2 t . If R1/ R2=2, then 2 t / 1 t is _______.
10
8
15
20
A solid circular shaft of 60 mm diameter transmits a torque of 1600 N.m.
The value of maximum shear stress developed is
37.72 MPa
47.72 MPa
57.72 MPa
67.72 MPa
A solid shaft of diameter, d length and length L is fixed at both ends. Aa torque, T0 is applied at a distance L/4 from the left end. The maximum shear stress in the shaft is
16To / πd3
12To / πd3
8To / πd3
4To / πd3
A solid circular shaft needs to be designed to transmit a torque of 50
Nm. If the allowable shear stress of the material is 140 MPa, assuming a
factor of safety of 2, the minimum allowable design diameter in mm is
8 mm
16 mm
24 mm
32 mm
The piston rod and the
crosshead in a steam engine are usually connected by means of
Cotter joint
Knuckle joint
Ball joint
Universal joint
Square
key of side "d/4" each and length l is used to transmit torque "T" from the shaft
of diameter "d" to the hub of a pulley. Assuming the length of the
key to be equal to the thickness of the pulley, the average shear stress
developed in the key is given by
4T/Id
16T/Id 2
16T/Id 2
16T/Id 3
A
60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries a steady load of 15 kN along the
weld. The shear strength of the weld material is equal to 200 MPa. The factor
of safety is
2.4
3.4
4.8
6.8
In
a gib and cotter joint, the gib and cotter are subjected to
Single s hear only
an axial tensile as well as compressive load
The bending moment only
only compressive axial load
A spur gear transmitting power is connected to the
shaft w ith a key of rectangular section. The type (s) of stresses developed in
the key is fare.
Shear stress alone
bearing stress alone
Both shear and bearing stresses
shearing, bearing and bending stresses .
In a fillet welded joint, the weakest area of
the weld is
Toe
root
throat
face
A double fillet welded joint with parallel
fillet weld of length L and leg B is subjected to a tensile force P. Assuming
uniform stress distribution, the shear stress in the weld is given by
2P/ B.L
P/3.B.L
P/2.B.L
3P/ B.L
The bolts in a rigid flanged coupling connecting
two shafts transmitting power are subjected to
Shear force and bending moment
axial force
Torsion and bending moment
torsion
A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm
and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of
friction of liner material 0.4, the torque carrying capacity of the clutch is
148 Nm
196 Nm
372 Nm
490 Nm
Total slip will Occur in a belt drive when
Angle of rest is zero
Angle of creep is zero
Angle of rest is greater than angle of creep
Angle of creep is greater than angle of rest
Which one of the following is not a friction
clutch?
Disc or plate clutch
Cone clutch
Centrifugal clutch
Jaw clutch
Which one of the following belts should not be
used above 40°C?
Balata belt
Rubber belt
Fabric belt
Synthetic belt
Which type of gear is used for shaft axes having
an offset?
Mitre gears
Spiral bevel gears
Hypoid gears
Zerol gears
When two shafts are neither parallel nor
intersecting, power can be transmitted by using
A pair of spur gears
a pair of helical gears
An Oldham's coupling
a pair of spiral gears
In the formulation of Lewis equation for toothed
gearing, it is assumed that tangential tooth load Ft, acts on the
Pitch point
tip
of the tooth
Root of the tooth
whole face of the tooth
If reduction
ratio of about 50 is required in a gear drive, then the most appropriate
gearing would be
spur gears
bevel gears
Double helical gears
worm and worm wheel
The
shearing area of a key of length 'L', breadth 'b' and depth 'h' is equal to
b x h
Lx h
Lx b
Lx (h/2)
Consider
the following statements:
A
splined shaft is used for
1.
Transmitting power
2.
Holding a flywheel rigidly in position
3.
Moving axially the gear wheels mounted on it
4.
Mounting V-belt pulleys on it.
Of
these statements
2 and 3 are correct
1 and 4 are correct
2 and 4 are correct
1
and 3 are correct
In
the welded joint shown in the given figure, if the weld at B has thicker fillets
than that at A, then the load carrying capacity P, of the joint will
increase
decrease
remain
unaffected
exactly
get doubled
Which
of the following stresses are associated with the design of pins in bushed
pin-type flexible coupling?
1. Bearing stress 2. Bending stress
3. Axial tensile stress 4. Transverse
shear stress
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below
1, 3 and 4
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 and 4
The angle of twist for a transmission shaft is
inversely proportional to
Shaft diameter
(Shaft diameter)2
(Shaft diameter)3
(Shaft diameter)4
A muff coupling is
rigid coupling
flexible coupling
shock absorbing coupling
none of these
The maximum shear stress in the spring is
induced at
inner surface of the coil
outer surface of the coil
central
surface of the coil
end coils
When a helical spring is cut into two halves,
the stiffness of each spring will be
same as original spring
double of original spring
half of
original spring
one fourth of original spring
Fatigue failure results due to fluctuating
stresses when the stress magnitude is
more than ultimate tensile strength
more than yield strength but lower than the
ultimate tensile strength
lower
than yield strength
none of these
Rankine theory of failure is applicable to
ductile materials
elastic materials
brittle materials
plastic materials
Distortion energy theory of failure is
applicable to
component made of plain carbon steel
component made of composites
component made of cast iron
component made of non-metals
Griffith’s law states that fracture strength
brittle material is
directly proportional to the square root of the
crack length
inversely proportional to the square root of the
crack length
directly proportional to the square of the crack
length
inversely proportional to the square of the
crack length
Flat head rivets are used in
ship hulls
light sheet metal work
structural work
air conditioning ducts
Maximum
shear stress theory is used for
cast iron shafts
steel shafts
flexible shafts
plastic shafts
Fatigue
thermal stress
wear and tear
shock loading
Stress concentration
in static loading is more serious in
Ductile materials
brittle materials
equally serious in
both cases
unpredictable
Bushed pin flexible
coupling is used to joint two shafts which
have lateral
misalignment.
whose axes intersect
at a small angle
are not in exact alignment
all of the above
The sleeve or muff
coupling is designed as a
thin vessel.
solid shaft.
hollow shaft.
continuous shaft.
Following type of
pipe joint is mostly used for pipes carrying water at low pressures
socket.
union.
spigot and socket.
sleeve and cotter.
For two parallel
shafts, the distance between whose axes is small and variable, which coupling
will you use?
hydraulic coupling
universal coupling
flange coupling
oldham’s coupling.
The trap end of the a
connecting rod of steam engine is joined by
gib of cotter
joint
sleeve and cotter
joint
knuckle joint
universal joint
Which of the
following pipe joints would be suitable for pipes carrying steam
flanged
threaded
bell & spigot
expansion joint
Universal coupling is
used to join two shafts
have lateral
misalignment.
whose axes intersect
at a small angle
are not in exact
alignment.
all of the above
The most important
dimension in the design of nut is
outside diameter of
nut
inside diameter
height
pitch diameter.
The valve rod in a
steam engine is connected to an eccentric rod by
cotter joint
bolted joint
knuckle joint
universal coupling
energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
400 MPa
2.500 MPa1000 MPa
1100 MPa
1200 MPa
1300 MPa
250 MPa
500 MPa
750 MPa
1000 MPa
Which of the following operating systems is used with CAD systems?
CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________.
CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions control the ________.
Which of the following operating systems is used with CAD systems?
With incremental tool positioning, ____.
each tool movement is made with reference to the last tool position
all tool movement is measured from a fixed point or origin
all tool movement is measured from a zero point
No tool Movement
The point-to-point NC movement system ____.
permits controlled tool travel along one axis at a time
is used for operations performed at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position
precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes
All the answers
A straight-cut system ____.
permits controlled tool travel along one axis at a time
is used for operations performed at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position
precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes
permits controlled tool travel along three axis at a time
When the contour or continuous path system is used, ____.
tool travel is controlled along one axis at a time
machine and tool movements are precisely controlled at all times and in all planes
tool movement from one point to the next does not have to follow a specific path
No movement of tool
With contour or continuous path NC movement system, ____.
cutter size and other variables must be considered when the program is prepared
cutter location is monitored continuously
cutting is continuous and can be in six axes simultaneously
All of the answers
In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be
(7.5, 5)
(10, 5)
(7.5, -5)
(10, -5)
During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be
Circular Interpolation - clockwise
Circular Interpolation - counterclockwise
Linear Interpolation
Rapid feed
The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by:
Control points
Knots
End points
All of the answers
The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors:
Increases with knot vectors
Decreases with knot vectors
Remains constant
No influence with knot vectors
IGES stands for
Initial Graphics Exchange System
Initial Graphics Exchange Software
Initial Graphic Exchange Solution
Initial Graphics Exchange Specification
Group technology and CAPP are the activities of
Computer Aided Engineering
Computer Aided Manufacturing
Computer Integrated Manufacturing
Flexible manufacturing
B-Rep is a methods of ____________
Solid modeling
Surface modeling
Wire frame modeling
2D modeling
The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10,10) whileperforming an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
N010G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
N010G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
N010G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
N010G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
What are the main components of an NC machine?
1. Part program 2. Machine Control Unit 3. Servo meter
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT language?
1. only capital letters are used 2. A period is placed at the end of each statement 3. Insertion of space does not affect the APT word
1 and 2
2 and 3
1and 3
1 alone
Which of the following are valid statements for point to point motion of the tool in APT language?
1. GOTO/............ 2. GO DLTA/............ 3. GO/TO, ……….
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3
one-half
3.twiceThe bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic __________ of all the moments on either side of the point.
sum
2.difference
3.multiplication
division
A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is




Strain resetters are used to
relieve strain
x τ x D3When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the member is
The value of stress concentration factor depends upon
Stress concentration is caused due to
When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the member is
The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without suffering permanent distortion, is known as
A rod of length L having uniform cross-sectional area A is subjected to a tensile force P. If the Young’s modulus of the material varies linearly from E1 to E2 (Given that; E1>E2) along the length of the rod, the normal stress developed at the mid section of the beam is
The bending stress in a beam is __________ section modulus.
Two identical circular rods of same diameter and same length are subjected to same magnitude of axial tensile force. One of the rods is made out of mild steel having the modulus of elasticity of 206 GPa. The other rod is made out of cast iron having the modulus of elasticity of 100 GPa. Assume both the materials to be homogeneous and isotropic and the axial force causes the same amount of uniform stress in both the rods. The stresses developed are within the proportional limit of the respective materials. Which of the following observations is correct?
In a sample of water an increase of pressure by 18 MN/m2 caused 1% reduction in the volume. The bulk modulus of elasticity of this sample, in MN/m2 is
If the principal stresses in a plane stress problem, are 100MPa, and 40MPa, the magnitude of the maximum shear stress (in MPa) will be
Which of these factors doesn't affect the stress of a wire?
Stress concentration is caused due to
Which of the following is not a basic type of strain?
Which bearing is best for space constraint?
A thin cylinder of inner radius 500mm and thickness 10mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 5MPa. The average circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is
A disk clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at 2000
rpm. The disk has a friction lining with coefficient of friction equal to 0.25.
Bore radius of friction lining is equal to 25 mm. Assume uniform contact
pressure of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction lining is
39.4 mm
49.5 mm
97.9 mm
142.9 mm
When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is __________ at that point.
A clutch has outer and inner
diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively.
Assuming a uniform pressure of
2MPa and coefficient of friction of liner
material is 0.4, the torque carrying
capacity of the clutch is
148 N m
196 N m
372 N m
490 N m
The clutch used in scooter is
multi plate clutch
single plate clutch
centrifugal clutch
cone clutch
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II
A. Single-plate friction clutch 1. Scooters
B. Multi-plate friction clutch 2. Rolling mills
C. Centrifugal clutch 3. Trucks
D. Jaw clutch 4.
Mopeds
1 3 4 2
1 3 2 4
3 1 2 4
3 1 4 2
The commonly used angle between leather or
asbestos friction lining surface and axis of cone clutch for a cone clutch is
14.5
20
12.5
45
In a band brake the
ratio of tight side band tension to the tension on the
slack side is 3. If
the angle of overlap of band on the drum is 180o,
the
coefficient of
friction required between drum and the band is
0.20
0.25
0.30
0.35
In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width and drum
diameter is kept between
0.1 to 0.25
0.25-0.50
0.50-0.75
0.75-1.0
Fabric belts are used in industrial applications
because
they are cheap
they can work at high temperature
they are unaffected by moisture and humidity
none of the above
The power transmitted by the belt drive can be
increased by
increasing the initial tension in the belt
dressing the belt to increase the coefficient of
friction
increasing wrap angle by using idler pulley
all of the above methods
In a 6×20 wire rope, No.6 indicates the
diameter of the wire rope in mm
Number of strands in the wire rope
Number of wires
Gauge number of the wire
In a flat belt drive the belt can be subjected to a
maximum tension T and centrifugal tension Tc . What is the condition for
transmission of maximum power?
T=Tc
T=4Tc
T=2Tc
T=3Tc
Interference between the teeth of two meshing
involute gears can be reduced or eliminated by
1. Increasing the addendum of the gear teeth and
correspondingly reducing the addendum of the pinion.
2. Reducing the pressure angle of the teeth of the
meshing gears.
3. Increasing the centre distance
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 only
3 only
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II
A. Undercutting 1.
Beam strength
B. Addendum 2.
Interference
C. Lewis equation 3.
Large speed reduction
D. Worm and wheel 4.
Intersecting axes
5.
Module
2 5 1 3
1 5 4 3
1 3 4 5
2 3 1 5
The dynamic load capacity of 6306 bearing is 22 kN.
The maximum radial load it can sustain to operate at 600 rev/min, for 2000
hours is
4.16 kN
3.60 kN
6.25 kN
5.29 kN
In sliding contact bearings, a positive pressure can
be built up and a load supported by a fluid only by the use of a:
Diverging film
Converging-diverging film
Converging film
Flat film
Assertion (A): In hydrodynamic journal bearings, the
rotating journal is held in floating condition by the hydrodynamic pressure
developed in the lubricant. Reason (R): Lubricant flows in a converging-diverging
channel.
Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
Both A and R are individually true but R is not
the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
0.048 mm
What are the upper and lower limits of the shaft represented by 60f8?
Use the following data
Diameter step is 50 - 80mm.
Fundamental tolerance unit i=0.45D^(1/3) + 0.001D, where D is the representative size in mm, Tolerance value for IT8 = 25i,
Fundamental deviation for f shaft = -5.5D^0.41
Upper and lower limits = 59.97mm
LOwer limit = 59.924mm
Upper limit = 60.000mm
Upper limit = 60.046mm
Lower limit = 59.970
None of the answers are correct
What does N, P and L mean in N.P.L. Gauge interferometer?
Nikon pulsed laser
Nuclear plasma laboratory
National Physics Laboratory
Nuclear physics laboratory
Imperial standard yard is made of _____________
Silver
Platinum
Bronze
None of the options are correct
Analytical checking of gears includes checking of ___________________
tooth profile
vibrations
noise level
None of the options are correct
Which formula is used to calculate diametral pitch?
(number of teeth) x (pitch circle diameter)
(pitch circle diameter) / (number of teeth)
(number of teeth) / (pitch circle diameter)
None of the options are correct
According to Taylor's principle which type of gauge checks both size and geometric features?
GO gauge
NOGO gauge
Snap gauge
None of the options are correct
What effect does pitch error have on nut and bolt?
Major diameter of nut decreases and effective diameter of bolt increases
Effective diameter of nut decreases and effective diameter of bolt increases
Effective diameter of nut increases and effective diameter of bolt decreases
What is ten point height method?
It is the average sum of ten highest points measured within sampling length
It is the average difference of five highest points and five deepest valleys measured within sampling length
It is the sum of ten highest points divided by sum of ten deepest valleys measured within sampling length
None of the options are correct
Which of the following statements is true?
Photocell is used to measure light intensity
Planimeter is used to measure surface roughness
According to Indian Standard 696 roughness valve is to be measured in millimeter
None of the options are correct
Which type of surface in a fringe pattern exhibits the movement of fringes towards the centre?
Convex
Concave
Flat
Circular
At which angle does a glass plate reflector set in N.P.L. interferometer?
45 degrees
90 degrees
35.5 degrees
85.5 degrees
Which type of deviation is observed while calculating hole dimensions?
positive
Negative
Zero
All the options are correct
The snap gauge having go dimension corresponds to _____________
MMC
MMMC
LMC
LMMC
Fill up the blank
Precision
mean value
Reynolds constant 1.4
Systematic error
Find the missing term in the equation which represents the standard tolerance unit.
0.005D
0.001D
0.056D
0.0012D
As the size of a part to be manufactured increases, the tolerance limits within which the part can be manufactured ______________________
increases
decreases
remains unaltered
None of the options are correct
What description of fit suits the vacant box?
Normal running fit
loose fit
tight fit
interference fit
Describe the fit in relation to the following data
No clearance
Slightly tight
none of the options are correct
What type of fit does the following description represent?
Clearance fit
transition fit
Interference fit
wide fit
What is the value of the fundamental tolerance unit"i" for the shaft and hole pair designated by
0.7327micro meter
0.7327milli meter
0.3727micro meter
0.3727milli meter
The figure given below represents the disposition of tolerance zone around the zero line
Find the
Min. Clearance and Max. Clearance
Min. Clearance 24 micrometer and Max. Clearance 4 micrometer
Min. Clearance 24 mm and Max. Clearance 4 mm
Max. Clearance 24 micrometer and Min. Clearance 4 micrometer
Min. Clearance 42 mm and Max. Clearance 24 mm
Internal diameter of any workpiece can be measured using ______
Solex pneumatic comparator
Sigma comparator
Johansson microcator
None of these options
Which among the following is measured using four ball method?
Diameter
Length
angle
radius
Match the following Group 1 items (Type of error) with Group 2 items (characteristics) and select the correct option
1. Gross error ----------------------A. Magnitude and direction vary
2. Systematic error --------------B. Caused by electrostatic fields
3. Random error ------------------C. Human fault
4. Environmental error ----------D. Magnitude and direction are definite
1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
Which of the following is a characteristic of End standard?
accuracy of ± 0.2 mm
the accuracy of ± 0.050 mm
accuracy of ± 0.001 mm
accuracy of ± 1.00 mm
Which ISO standard is used in international automobile companies to set automotive quality system standards ?
ISO 14000
TS 16949
TSISO 9000
None of the options are correct
ISO 14000 quality standard is related with
Eliminating poor quality
Environmental management systems
Automotive quality standards
Customer satisfaction
Which of the following is a contact type of automated inspection method?
Laser scanning
Electric field
Inspection probe
None of the options are correct
Which of the following statements is true?
In three wire method, each flank of a thread is touched by a wire in
axial plane section and this is valid only for a thread having rank
angle
Compression error is always subtracted from effective diameter value obtained
The value of θ is assumed 30o while calculating best wire diameter for Whitworth thread
Floating carriage type of micrometer is used for two wire method
Calculate diameter of best wire for a Withworth thread of M 24 x 7 mm size.
3.94mm
4.94mm
2.03mm
8.68mm
Which of the following methods is unreliable to evaluate the surface finish?
Electrical stylus profilometer
Wallace surface dynamometer
Profilograph
Tomlinson surface tester
Which principle does Taylor-Hobson-Talysurf tester work on?
Capacitive demodulating principle
Intensity modulating principle
Inductive modulating principle
Carrier modulating principle
Which type of light source is used in N.P.L. type of flatness interferometer?
Mercury nickel vapour lamp
Cadmium and mercury vapour lamp. It depends on the type of the specimen
Cadmium lamp
Mercury vapour lamp
A measurement system only includes operators and gauges
Precision is related to the accuracy of the measurements
This is a solid shape that fits inside the mold and forms a hole in a cooled cast metal or molten plastic object:
When a metal is specified as "tough" in the part drawing, the manufacturing engineer should understand that this metal:
Which of the following is the best engineering plastics material that has high tensile strength, high compressive strength, with minimal elongation to use for a product that will be injection molded?
The best process for making a kitchen drawer divider tray out of plastic sheets is:
A turning operation is to be done on a piece of alloy steel that has a diameter of 90mm. If the depth of cut is set at 3.175 mm, the feed is set at 0.30 mm per revolution, and the recommended cutting speed using a carbide tool is 90 meters per minute, what rotational speed you will set on the machine, from the following available speeds on machine, in rpm?
The purpose of a riser in a mold is
Emulsified oils which are used in machine shop are
Chills are used in moulds to
In foundry work, a runner is which one of the following:
Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following: (a) time between pouring and
complete solidification, (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature, (c) time
between solidification and cooling to room temperature, or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion?
In a sand-casting mold, the V/A ratio of the riser should be
In a sand-casting mold, the V/A ratio of the riser should be
In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern is
Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core, the
buoyancy force is which one of the following?
Which of the following materials require largest shrinkage allowance while making a pattern for a casting?
Disposable patterns are made of
Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to compensate for shrinkage when
In sand molding, core prints are used to
In sand molding draft is provided on the
Shell moulding requires
In a casting process, fluidity is mostly influenced by
Sprue in sand casting refers to
In sand molding, a slick refers to
The purpose of sprue is to
In sand mold, the purpose of gate is to
The purpose of riser is to
In sand molding there is no need to provide one of the following allowance, it is
The purpose of chaplets in a mould is to
In metrology, a feeler gauge is used to check
Tomlinson's surface meter and Taylor Hobson Talysurf are _______ instruments
Slip gauges are _________standards
Dial gauge is a ________
Among the various terminologies related to surface roughness, 'Ra' represents _______
The least measurement that can be detected by a measuring instrument is _______
The closeness of the measured value to the actual value is ________
The comparators eliminate the __________
The scientist 'Carl Edvard Johansson' invented ________
Primary standards are kept at all leading industries across the globe
The closeness among the measured value is ___________
In metrology, calibration is performed to __________
Error of measurement = _______
The ability by which a measuring device can detect small differences in the quantity being measured by it, is called its ________________
Comparing an unknown with a standard through calibrated system is called _______________
. Among the following options, pick the line standard of measurement
The angle gauge by Dr. Tomlinson consists of a set of _______________
The principle of ‘Inter-changeability’ is normally employed for _______
Following is the theoretical size which is common to both the parts of a mating pair
_____ is equal to the differences of the two limits of size of the part
The amount by which the actual size of a shaft is less than the actual size of mating hole in an assembly
__________ is the basis of interferometry
A 1.5mm surface is being measured on an interferometer. A lamp is used which can emit wave lengths as follows.
Red: 0.842 µm, Blue: 0.6628 µm.
What are the nominal fractions expected for the gauge for the two wave lengths?
Cylindricity measurement comes under the category of _______________
"Piston -profile tester" is an instrument to check ___________________
NO-GO gauge checks the ________________________
GO gauge checks the ________________________
In unilateral tolerance system, the gauge tolerance zones lie entirely within the __________________________
Which option given here is not the limitations/disadvantages of limit gauges
Which option given here is not the advantages of limit gauges
Reference gauges are also known as ___________________
__________________ may be used to check the contour of a profile of work piece for conformance to certain shape.
A template gauge comes under the category of ________________________
The tool maker’s microscope is based on the principle of ____________________
A collimator is a device that narrows a beam of particles or waves
Inter-changeability is the ability to select components for assembly at random and fit them together within proper tolerances
. In a lathe, to check the Parallelism of the Main Spindle to Saddle Movement, we conduct _____________________
An _______________ interferometer is a device in which two or more light waves are combined together to produce interference
A screw thread measurement involves _____________________
2-wire and 3-wire methods measure __________________
Calibration is performed to ____________________
What a calibration certificate contains
Gauge blocks are a system for producing precision lengths
An important feature of gauge blocks is that they can be joined together with very little dimensional uncertainty
The ______________________________________ on thickness of tooth is the variation of actual thickness of tooth from its theoretical value
Why Micrometer carries a ratchet stop?
Ratchet stop applies uniform pressure on the measuring faces.
Ratchet stop develops uniform temperature irrespective of operator’s skill and strength.
Ratchet stop protects the instrument from dust
Ratchet stop protects the instrument from acoustic troubles
What are the reasons behind false reading on Micrometer while taking measurements?
There is zero error in Micrometer.
Dirty work piece or measuring faces of micrometer.
Taking measurement when the job is moving
All the options are reasons
Mention the features of a Universal Bevel Protractor?
Minimum reading is 5 minutes.
Fine
adjustment of the blade insures the precision measuring and laying out of angle
Main parts are of hardened stainless steel to prevent rust.
All the options are features
An eutectoid steel consists of
wholly pearlite
wholly austenite
pearlite and ferrite
pearlite and cementite
Shock resisting steels should have
low wear resistance
low hardness
low tensile strength
toughness
Cast iron is a
ductile material
malleable material
brittle material
tough material
The hardness is the property of a material due to which it
can be drawn into wires
breaks with little permanent distortion
can cut another metal
can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets
Malleable cast iron is produced
by adding magnesium to molten cast iron
by quick cooling of molten cast iron
from white cast iron by annealing process
none of these
The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from
0.1 to 0.5
0.5 to 1
Brass is an alloy of
copper and zinc
copper and tin
copper, tin and zinc
none of these
A material is said to be allotropic, if it has
fixed structure at all temperatures
atoms distributed in random pattern
different crystal structures at different temperatures
any one of the above
Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in
zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
none of the above
The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by
hardening and cold working
normalising
martempering
full annealing
The quenching of steel from the upper critical point results in a fine grained structure.
Agree
Disagree
When the steel is normalised, its
yield point increases
ductility decreases
ultimate tensile strength increases
all of these
The unit cells
contain the smallest number of atoms which when taken together have all the properties of the crystals of the particular metal
have the same orientation and their similar faces are parallel
may be defined as the smallest parallelopiped which could be transposed
in three coordinate directions to build up the space lattice
The lower critical point for all steels is
600°C
700°C
723°C
913°C
The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some directions but not in others, is called
mesomorphous material
crystalline material
none of these
amorphous material
Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3% carbon are known as
eutectic cast irons
hypo-eutectic cast irons
hyper-eutectic cast irons
none of these
The hardness of steel increases if it contains
pearlite
ferrite
cementite
martensite
In full annealing, the hypo-eutectoid steel is heated from 30° C to 50° C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled
in still air
slowly in the furnace
suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
any one of these
The lower critical temperature
decreases as the carbon content in steel increases
increases as the carbon content in steel increases
is same for all steels
depends upon the rate of heating
Which of the following is an amorphous material?
Mica
Silver
Lead
Glass
Preheating of parent metal plates before welding is done to
Metal better weldable with itself is
Metal which can be suitable welded by TIG welding is
Main advantage of MIG welding (GMAW) over TIG welding is that
Thermit welding is
Submerged arc welding is
Submerged arc welding is
In gas welding, maximum temperature occurs at
Temperature of the plasma torch is of the order of
In reverse polarity welding
Amperage setting in the electric arc welding (SMAW) depends on
Consumable electrode is used in the following welding process: -
Ratio of oxygen to acetylene for complete combustion is
If two pieces of different metals are to be welded by projection welding, then the projection should be done on the metal piece having
Multi spot welding is infact a
Material difficult to be spot welded is
In fusion welding, porosity defect is due to
Adding ‘C’ to pure Fe will,
Reduce the melting point
Increase the melting point
No change
Change volume drastically
Which of the following is the hardest one?
Ferrite
Cementite
Martensite
Tempered martensite
What is the major driving force for any phase
transformation?
Volume change
Chemical compositional
Free energy reduction
None of these
Which of the following are intensive properties
Gibb’s free energy
Enthalpy
Entropy
Density
Voltage during the arc-striking compared to the voltage during welding in electric arc welding is
The weld pool is surrounded by an inert gas in
Filler metal is used in
Electroslag welding is
Arc length in an arc welding should be equal to
Filler material is essentially used in
Grey iron is generally welded by
Copper is
In electrical resistance welding
An example of plastic welding is
In sintering stage of powder metallurgy, which of the following process take place?
In production of precision components, the use of powder metallurgy technique mainly reduces
Widely used metal powder production method for powder metallurgy is
One of the process used to manufacture crankshafts is
Most suitable process for manufacturing carburettor body is
Most suitable process for manufacturing nails is
Extrusion process can effectively reduce the cost of production through
Major problem in hot extrusion is
Upsetting or cold heading is a
Material good for extrusion is
Seam less tube can be produced by
A tooth paste tube can be produced by
Rolling process can not be used to produce
The unit of thermal conductivity is ------------.
J/mK
W/mK
J/m2K
W/m2K
The insulation ability of an insulator in the presence of moisture would
remain unaffected
increase
decrease
be unpredictable
The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same thickness having their thermal conductivities K1 = 2K2 will be --------.
0.25
0.5
1
2
Metals are good conductors of heat because
Their atoms collide frequently
They have high density
They contain free electrons
Their atoms are relatively far apart
The value of Prandtle number for air is approximately
0.287
0.7
1.0
4.2
Absorptivity of a body equals its emissivity
at all temperatures
at one particular temperature
when system is under thermal equillibrium
at critical temperature
If temperature of a solid surface changes from 300 K to 900 K, then its emissive power changes in the ratio of
3
9
27
81
The zone of transition between laminar sublayer and turbulent core is called
transition zone
buffer layer
boundary layer
turbulent layer
Friction power of the IC engine will _________ if the engine speed is increased.
In a turbojet engine, subsequent to heat addition to compressed air, to get the power output, the working substance
is expanded in
A nozzle is said to have choked flow when
In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 600 kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400 kJ/kg and the heat supplied is
1000 kJ/kg. The thermal efficiency of this cycle is :
. In an internal combustion engine, during the compression stroke the heat rejected to the cooling water is 50 kJ/kg and the work input is 100 kJ/kg. The change in internal energy of the working fluid is
Rankine cycle efficiency of well maintained steam power plant is in the range of
The efficiency of standard Diesel cycle depends on
Which process is included in air standard Diesel cycle?
Which one of the following is part of air standard Braytion cycle?
The mean effective pressure of an engine is defined as
An Otto cycle operates with volumes of 40 cm3 and 400 cm3 at Top Dead Centre and Bottom Dead Center respectively. If the power output is 100 kW, what is the heat input in kJ/s?
A low wet bulb temperature indicates very __________ humidity.
Cooling with adiabatic humidification Process is known as
The volumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will
A two satge compressor takes in air at 1.1. bar and discharges at 20 bar. for minimum compression work, the intermediate pressure is
In a single stage air-compressor, the clearance volume is 1/19th of the swept volume. It delivers 7.6 m3 of free air per minute from 100 kpa to 900 kpa. Assume the index of compression and expansion as 1.2. Find the volumetric efficiency of compressor
A 20 m3 of air per minute is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree Celsius to 10.24 bar. Calculate the minimum power required to drive the compressor with 2-stage compression. Assume the index of compression is 1.3
The work input to air compressor is minimum if the compression law followed is
PV1.35= C
PVγ = C
Find the volumetric efficiency of the compressor if air is compressed from 1 bar to 7 bar. The expansion and compression are isentropic (n=1.3)and the clearance volume is 3% of stroke volume.
A mono-atomic ideal gas (Ƴ = 1.67,molecular weight = 40) is compressed adiabatically from 0.1 MPa, 300 K to 0.2 MPa. The universal gas constant is 8.314 kJ/molK. The work of compression of the gas (in kJ/kg) is
29.7
19.9
13.3
4.zero
A gas expands in a frictionless piston-cylinder arrangement. The expansion process is very slow and is resisted by an ambient pressure of the 100 kPa. During the expansion process, the pressure of the system (gas) remains consant at 300 kPa. The change in volume of the gas is 0.01 m3. The maximum amount of work that could be utilized from the above process is
Zero
1 kJ
2 kJ
3kJ
A reversible thermodynamic cycle containing only
three processes and producing work is to be constructed. The constrains are (a)
there must be one isothermal process, (b) there must be one isentropic process,
(c) the maximum and minimum cycle pressures and clearance volume are fixed and
(d) polytrophic processes are not allowed. Then the number of possible cycles
is/are
1
2
3
4
For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the highest efficiency occurs for
Saturated cycle
Superheated cycle
Reheat cycle
Regenerative cycle
A football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1
bar when the ambient temperature was 15°C. When the game started next day, the
air temperature at the stadium was 5°C. Assume that the volume of the football
remains constant at 2500 cm3, the amount of heat lost by the air in
the football and the gauge pressure of air in the football at the stadium
respectively equal to
61.1 J, 1.94 bar
43.7 J, 0.93 bar
Which of the following temperature scales doesn’t have negative numbers?
Celsius
Kelvin
Fahrenheit
Galileo
Which of the following could NOT be used to
indicate a temperature change? A change in:
Colour of a metal rod
Length of a liquid column
Electrical resistance
Mass of one mole of gas at constant pressure
The property of a system that does not change when the system is undergoing adiabatic process
Pressure
Temperature
Volume
Quantity of Heat
A heat engine takes in some amount of thermal energy and performs 50 J of work in each cycle and rejects 150 J of energy. What is its efficiency?
500 %
400 %
25 %
20 %
A rigid container holds an ideal gas (Cv = 0.75 kJ/(kg K) ). The container is cooled from 110℃ to 20℃. Find the specific heat transfer (kJ/kg) for the process
67.5 kJ/ kg
– 67.5 kJ / kg
-96 kJ/kg
96 kJ/kg
Match items in List-I (Process) with those in List-II (Characteristic) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Throttling process 1. No work done
B. Adiabatic process 2. No heat transfer
C. Free expansion 3. Constant internal energy
D. Isothermal process 4. Constant enthalpy
A B C D
4 2 1 3
A B C D
1 2 4 3
A B C D
4 3 1 2
A B C D
1 3 4 2
Think about how a refrigerator works and the system of the refrigerator and the area outside of the refrigerator at ambient temperature. Is the high temperature the body refrigerator or the ambient air around the refrigerator?
Not enough information to answer
Provided the refrigerator is working, the refrigerator is the higher temperature body
Provided the refrigerator is working, the area around the refrigerator is the higher temperature body
Provided the refrigerator is working, the bodies are of the same temperature
A rigid vessel contains pure substance and it passes through the critical state on heating only if the initial state is
subcooled water
wet
dry
superheated
The temperature recorded by a thermometer when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to air.
The spark advance is usually specified in terms of
In reciprocating compressors, clearance is provided
The commercial refrigeration system which is closer to reversed carnot cycle in terms of performance is
Air ( Cp = 1.0 kJ/kg ratio of specific heat = 1.4) enter a compressor at a temperature of 27 deg.C. The compressor ratio is 4. Asuuming an mechanical efficiency of 80%, the compressor work required in kJ/kg is
The latent heat load in an auditoriam is 25% of sensible heat load. The value of sensible heat factor(SHF) is equal to
___________gives the fraction of air which does not come into contact with heating coil surface
Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based on _____________ law of thermodynamics
Humidification or Dehumidification process is also called as
The air refrigeration system is working on _____________________ cycle
A lubrication system in which a scoop connected at the lowest part of the connecting rod is used to spread the lubricating oil on the cylinder wall is called
The amount of heat removed from 1 ton (1000 kg) of pure water supplied at 00C to form ice at 00C in 24 hours is known as _______________
A 40 kW engine has a mechanical efficiency of 80 %. If the frictional power is assumed to be constant with load, what is the approximate value of the mechanical efficiency at 50% of the rated load?
A refrigerant should have low
Antiknock character of compression ignition engine fuel is increased by
In computing the engine performance, the heating value of fuel used is _______________
Superheating in vapour compression refrigeration cycle is
The ratio of high temperature to low temperature in reversed carnot cycle refrigerator is 1.1. The COP of the refrigerator will be
0.7 kg/s of air enters with a spefic enthalpy of 290 kJ and leaves it with 450 kJ of specific enthalpy. Velocities at inlet and exit are 6 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. Assuming adiabatic process, what is power input to the compressor?
Which one of the following phenomena occurs when gas in a piston-in-cylinder assembly expands reversibiliy at constant pressure?
The total and static pressures at the inlet of a steam nozzle are 186 kPa and 178 kPa respectively. If the total pressure at the exit is 180 kPa and static pressure is 100 kPa, then the loss of energy per unit mass in the nozzle will be:
Consider the following statements regarding an impulse turbine:
1. Relative velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.
2. Absolute velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.
3. Static pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.
4. Total pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.
Of these statements:
In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is 537 m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW for unit steam flowrate will be
282 kW
296 kW
260 kW
4.302 kW
Increase in entropy of a system represents
Increase in availability of energy
increase in temperature
decrease in pressure
degradation of energy
The temperature of water flowing through the
turbine increases from 25°C to 27°C due to friction. If there is no heat
transfer, determine the change of entropy of water.
2.8 J/kgK
28J/kgK
-2.8kJ/kgK
-28kJ/kgK
A paddle wheel fitted with a 300 W motor is used
to stir water in a large container. The water in the container is maintained at
300 K and if the motor runs for 2 hours, determine the change in entropy of
water.
7200 J/K
-7200 J/K
0
72 J/K
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kgK to 0.4 kJ/kgK. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. Determine the process.
Reversible and isothermal
Irreversible
Reversible
Impossible
When pressure is raised in an isentropic
process, the enthalpy of the substance
Remains same
Increases
decreases
First increases and then decreases
The dryness fraction at the end of expansion of a Reheat cycle operating under the same temperature limits has
Same as that of Rankine cycle
More than that of Rankine cycle
Less than that of Rankine cycle
Not able to correlate with provided data.
Which one of the following thermodynamic
relations is incorrect
T.dS = du + p.dv
T.dS = dh + v.dp
dH = T.dS + v.dp
dG = Vdp − S.dT
Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?
Volume
Temperature
Density
The sequence of events that eventually returns
the working fluid to its original state is known as
process
cycle
path
property
If C is the number of components and φ is the number of phases in a system, the number of independent intensive properties required to specify the state of the system
F=C-φ-2
F=C+φ+2
F=C-φ+2
F=C+φ-2
Which of the following curve has a negative slope for water as working fluid in the P-T phase diagram
Fusion curve
evaporation curve
3.triple point line
sublimation curve.
The work output of a Reheat cycle operating under the same temperature limits is:
Same as that of Rankine cycle
Greater than that of Rankine cycle
Lesser than that of Ranking cycle
Not able to correlate with provided data.
Which of the following statements about absolute zero temperature is true?
At absolute zero all translational motion of the
particles ceases
At absolute zero all rotational motion of the particles ceases.
Absolute zero is defined at −273.15°C.
All the above.
What mass of He gas occupies 8.5 liters at 0°C and 1 atmosphere? (The molar mass of He = 4.00 g/mol.)
10.5 g
1.52 g
0.38 g
2.6 g
A gas has a density X at standard temperature and pressure. What is the new density when the absolute temperature is doubled and the pressure increased by a factor of 3?
(2/3)X
(4/3)X
(3/2)X
(3/4)X
A rigid container of air is at atmospheric pressure and 27ºC. To double the pressure in the container, heat it to
54ºC
300ºC
327ºC
600ºC
If a mass of oxygen gas occupies a volume of 8 L at standard temperature and pressure, what is the change in the volume if the temperature is reduced by one half and the pressure is doubled?
It increases to 12 L.
It increases to 6 L.
It increases to 2 L.
It increases to 24 L.
If the pressure and volume of an ideal gas are both reduced to half their original value, the absolute temperature of the gas is
unchanged.
increased by a factor of 4.
doubled.
decreased by a factor of 4.
The relationship between the pressure and the volume of a gas expressed by Boyle's law holds true
for some gases under any conditions.
for all gases under any conditions.
if the container of the gas can expand with increasing pressure.
if the temperature is constant.
The air around us has 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen. If the pressure is 1 atm, the pressure due to oxygen is
0.21 atm
0.78 atm
1 atm
0.67 atm
The work output of theoretical Otto cycle
increases with increase in compression ratio
increases with increase in pressure ratio
increases with increase in adiabatic index γ
follows all the above.
In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
change of entropy between inlet and outlet
change of temperature between inlet and outlet.
synthetic layout
analytical layout
Static product layout
none of these
capacity of a warehouse
average level of inventory
optimum lot size
lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
factory and administration overheads
factory overheads
factory, administration and sales overheads
factory, administration, sales overheads and profit
Process chart
Gantt Chart
3.Machine load chart
4.Man machine chart
estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job activities
estimation of the percentage utilisation of machine tools
finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive and where time study by stop watch method is not possible
all of the above
motion study
Time study
job enrichment
All of these
flow process chart
travel chart
string diagram
flow diagram
Standard time of a job
merit rating of the worker
fixation of incentive rate
normal time of a worker
Operation chart
process chart
Travel chart
4.flow chart
where processes require the operator to be moved from one work place to another
for checking the relative values of various layouts
when a group of workers are working at a place
all of the above
analysis of standard data system
analysis of micromotions
grouping timing technique
stop watch time study
B
2.A
3.C
4.E
fixed cost + variable cost
Variable cost + sales revenue
fixed cost + sales revenue
fixed cost + variable cost + profit
factory expenses
administrative expenses
selling expenses
none of these
product layout
fixed position layout
combination layout
process layout
only work measurement
method study and work measurement
only motion study
only method study
prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed
determines the programme for the operations
is concerned with the starting of processes
regulates the progress of job through various processes
group layout
product layout
process layout
static layout
synthetic layout
none of these
static product layout
analytical layout
fork lift truck
belt conveyor
bucket conveyor
fork lift truck
machines can not be used to their maximum capacity
specialised and strict supervision is required
manufacturing cost rises with a fall in the volume of production
all of the above
where similar jobs are manufactured on similar machines
all of the above
where machines are arranged on functional basis
where low volume of production is required
Linear regression
Acceptance sampling
Performance rating
Work sampling
production control is more difficult and costly
handling and back-tracking of materials is too much
routing and scheduling is more difficult
all of the above
Man machine chart
Operation process chart
Travel chart
all of these
is a basic technique of materials management
is meant for relative inventory control
does not depend upon the unit cost of the item but on its annual consumption
all of the above
prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed
is concerned with starting of processes
regulates the progress of job through various processes
determines the programme for the operations
all of these
factory expenses
selling expenses
administrative expenses
observed performance - normal performance
observed performance + normal performance
observed performance x normal performance
none of the above
unit costs are high
all of these
operations are labour-intensive
highly skilled workers are needed
material handling operation
maintenance operation
packing and shipping operation
all of these
Principle of flow
2.principle of flexibility
principle of over-all integration
all of these
What does a symbol D imply in workstudy
Inspection
2.Transportation
3.Delay
4.Storage
normal time
representative time
standard time
None of these
Productivity increases when
inputs increase while outputs remain the same
inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
outputs decrease while inputs remain the same
inputs and outputs increase proportionately
Which of the following is not a therblig?
Use
2.Hold
3.Dispatch
4.Inspect
Micromotion study is
enlarged view of motion study
analysis of only one stage of motion study
time study of small components up to microseconds
subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
Greater flexibility in plant layout is achieved in case of
Process layout
Product layout
Combination layout
Fixed position layout
-Routing and Scheduling are integral part of
Work study
Job analysis
Quality control
Product planning
Work sampling is applied for
estimation of the percentage utilisation of machine tools
estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job activities
finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive and where time study by stop watch method is not possible
all of the above
Which one of the following chart gives simultaneously information about the progress of work and machine loading? |
Process chart
Machine load chart
Man-machine chart
Gantt chart
Which of the following statement is correct?
A-B-C analysis is based on Pareto's principle.
Simulation can be used for inventory control.
Economic order quantity formula ignores variations in demand pattern
all of the above
The unit cost in case of batch production is __________as compared to jobbing production.
Same
2.Low
3.High
4.None
For a product layout the material handling equipment must
Which of the following is independent of sales forecast?
Productivity
2.Inventory control
3.Production planning
4.Production control
Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production?
Performance rating is equal to
In the cost structure of a product, the selling price is determined by the factors such as
Which one of the following techniques is used for determining allowances in time study?
Linear regression
3.Work Sampling
Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of
Routing is essential in the following type of industry
The production scheduling is simpler and high volume of output and high labour efficiency are achieved in the case of
The disadvantage of product layout is
Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at
The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
In manufacturing management, the term 'Dispatching' is used to describe
For handling materials during manufacture of cement, a _________ is widely used.
Process layout is employed
What does symbol 'O' imply in work study?
Inspection
2.Opeartion
3.Dealy
4.Storage
For a small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is Rs. 5000. The variable cost per product is Rs. 20 and sales price is Rs. 30 per piece. The break even production per month will be
300
2.460
3.500
4.1000
The type of layout used for manufacturing steam turbines, is
Motion study involves analysis of
All of the above
The average time recorded by work study man for an operation is called
Standard time
2.Normal time
3.Representative time
4.None of these
Indirect expenses include
All of these
Time study is carried out to determine the time required to complete job by
In order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities, the layout preferred is
Father of industrial engineering is
Gantt
3.Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to
Works cost implies
Which of the following charts are used for plant layout design?
All of these
Euler equation for turbomachines is derived on the basis of
In centrifugal compressor terminology, vane-less space refers to the space between
In product layout |
specialised and strict supervision is required
machines can not be used to their maximum capacity
manufacturing cost rises with a fall in the volume of production
all of the above
A company spends considerable amount on publicity to promote sales. This expenditure in break even chart is shown below the
fixed cost line
| variable cost line |
total cost line
sales revenue line
The main objective of work measurement is to |
plan and schedule of production
formulate a proper incentive scheme
estimate the selling prices and delivery dates
all of the above
In fixed position layout |
total production cost is less
material movement is less
capital investment is minimum
all of these
The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor is called as
job enrichment
time study
motion study
All of these
An axial flow compressor stage is suitable for
In aircraft gas turbines, the axial flow compressor is preferred because
An axial flow compressor has
A centrifugal pump delivers water at the rate of 50 litres/s against a total head of 40 metres. Then the power required to drive the pump is
Which one of the following helps in avoiding cavitation in centrifugal pumps?
A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is
Specific speed of a Kaplan Turbine ranges between
Consider the following characteristics:
1. The fluid enters the pump axially and is discharged radially
2. Maximum efficiency may be of the order of 90%
3. Development of a low head
4. A limited suction capacity
Which of the above characteristics are possessed by axial flow pumps?
Consider the following statements regarding an impulse turbine:
1. Relative velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.
2. Absolute velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.
3. Static pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.
4. Total pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.
Of these statements:
If the enthalpy drops of moving blade and fixed blade of a stage in a reaction turbine are 9 and 11 kJ/kg respectively,
then degree of reaction of the stage is
The degree of reaction of a turbine is the ratio of enthalpy drop in
In motion and time study which of the following is used in product analysis?
| Process chart | |||
man machine chart
3.Multi process chart
4.All of the above
The hydraulic efficiency of a reaction turbine, is the ratio of
In motion and time study which of the following is used in man analysis?
Man and machine analysis chart
Man and maching operation time chart
Man and machine, process time chart
All of the above
The function of the draft tube in a reaction turbine is
| Which of the following is unaboidable delay? |
Waiting for raw material
Non-availability of inspection gauge
Non-availability of power
Tool breakage
The most important objective behind plant layout is
The main aim of compounding of steam turbine is to
Productivity can be rational defined by
Outputs/Inputs
Input + Output)/ Output
Output/(Input + Output)
Inputs/Outputs
What is the productivity for a company produces 40kg of plastic parts of acceptable quality by consuming 50kg of raw material
0.8
2.1.25
3.0.44
4.2.25
Based on the direction of flow, which one of the following turbines is different from the other three?
Indicates how much of a particular kind of input it takes to produce an output
Outputs/(Single kind of input)
(Total Output)/(Total Input)
How efficiently company use only one input, such as raw material, when creating outputs
Both Effectiveness and Efficiency
Effectiveness only
Efficiency only
None of the above
The determination of standard time in a complex job system is best done through
Which of the following are the principles of material handling?
Which of the following type of layout is suitable for automobile manufacturing concern?
Product layout
2.Process layout
3.Fixed position layout
4.Combination layout
For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm when the
nozzle angle is 200, the optimum velocity of steam in m/s is
Manometric efficiency of a centrifugal pump is defined as the ratio of
Which one of the following helps in avoiding cavitation in centrifugal pumps?
In a pelton Wheel the bucket peripheral speed is 10 m/s, the water jet velocity is 25 m/s and volumetric flow rate of the jet is 0.1m3/s. If the jet defection angle is 1200 and the flow is ideal, the power developed is
A Pelton wheel turbine is,
Kaplan turbine need to have the following for maintaining high efficiency
A Kaplan turbine is,
Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases the head on the turbine by an amount equal to the height of runner outlet above the tail race?
Steam enters the rotor of a reaction turbine with an absolute velocity of 236 m/s and the relative velocity of 132 m/s. It leaves the rotor with a relative velocity of 232 m/s absolute velocity of 126 m/s. The specific work output is
Consider the following statements:
1. Almost all flow losses take place in the diverging part of a nozzle.
2. Normal shocks are likely to occur in the converging part of a nozzle.
3. Efficiency of reaction turbines is higher than that of impulse turbines.
Of these statements
Which of the followings are the demerits of single impulse stage
1. Requirement of C-D nozzle
2. Enhanced shock associated losses
3. More boundary layer associated losses in comparison with single reaction stage
The pressure rise in the impeller of centrifugal compressor is achieved by
Stalling of blades in axial- flow compressor is the phenomenon of
An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of power when the blade mean speed is 400 m/s. What is the rate of change of momentum tangential to the rotor?
Considering the variation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse steam turbine, across one row of moving blades
The static temperature and Mach number at the inlet of a centrifugal compressor are 303 K and 0.5 respectively. The stagnation temperature of the air at the inlet will be:
When n = 1.3 and ɤ =
1.4, the polytropic efficiency of a turbine is
80.7%
2.70.7%
3.60.7%
4.90.7%
The overall
efficiency of the compressor is ____________than the stage efficiency
less
2.higher
3.same
4.The pressure of the
working fluid changes in both stator and rotor for a impulse stage of turbine
Yes
2.No
3. 4.What is the ratio of
isentropic work to Euler work in an centrifugal compressor called?
Velocity coefficient
Pressure coefficient
Flow coefficient
The ratio of actual whirl
velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor is called as
_________.
velocity factor
slip factor
work factor
none of the above
For a
zero percent reaction stage of axial flow turbine, β2 = β3
Yes
2.No
3. 4.Vaneless diffusers are
suitable for ___________.
only
low pressure rise
only high pressure rise
both low as well as high pressure rise
The diffuser blades are kept
______ the number of impeller blades.
1/10 th of
1/3 rd of
10 times
3 times
The function of _________ is to convert high
kinetic energy of gases into pressure energy.
impeller
diffuser
casing
None of the above
What is
the number of jets generally employed in an impulse
turbine without jet interference?
6
2.5
3.7
4.4
The number of blades for a Francis turbine
lies between
16 to 24
2.24 to 48
3.0 to 6
4.10 to 20
Which of the
following statement is correct as regard to water wheels?
they have slow speed
2.they give constant efficiency even if the discharge is not constant
they are suitable even for low loads
all the above
Which of the following is not an impulse
turbine?
Kaplan turbine
2.Girad turbine
Turgo turbine
Pelton wheel
Which of the
following statement is wrong ?
The angle of
taper on draft tube is less than 80
Francis turbine is an impulse turbine
3.The reaction
turbines are used for low head and high discharge
An impulse turbine is generally fitted
Francis, Kaplan and
propeller turbines fall under the category of
impulse turbine
axial flow turbines
3.mixed flow
reaction turbine
A turbine develops 10000 kW
under a head of 25 meters at 135 r.p.m. Its specific speed is
175.4
215.5
275.4
241.5
For harnessing lower variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high percentage of reaction and runner adjustable vanes is,
A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine are examples of
Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases the head on the turbine by an amount equal to the height of runner outlet above the tail race?
Which of the following is a reaction turbine?
Which of the followings are the demerits of single impulse stage
1. Requirement of C-D nozzle
2. Enhanced shock associated losses
3. More boundary layer associated losses in comparison with single reaction stage
Which one of the following is used to bring down the speed of an impulse steam turbine to practical limits?
An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of power when the blade mean speed is 400 m/s. What is the rate of change of momentum tangential to the rotor?
In a circular pipe of certain length carrying oil at a Reynolds number 100, it is proposed to triple the discharge. If the viscosity remains unchanged, the power input will have to be
The viscosity of
A U-tube manometer measures
In water jet machining, the water jet is issued through a 0.3mm diameter orifice at a pressure of 400 MPa. THe density of water is 1000 kg/cubic meter. The coefficient of discharge is 1.0. Neglecting all loses during water jet formation through the orifice, the power of the water in kW is _________
When all the conditions are identical, in the case of flow through pipes with heat transfer, the velocity profiles will be identical for:
Two pipelines of equal length and diameter of 20 cm and 30 cm respectively are connected in parallel between two reservoirs. If the friction actor f is the same for both the pipes, the ration of the discharges in the smaller to the larger size of the pipe is
Bernoulli equation is applicable between any two points
The potential function exist for
Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core, the
buoyancy force is which one of the following?
The centre of buoyancy of a submerged body
A triangular gate with a base width of 2m and a height of 1.5 m lies in a vertical plane. The top vertex of the gate is 1.5m below the surface of a tank which contains oil of specific gravity 0.8. Considering the density of water and acceleration due to gravity to be 1000 kg/cu.m and 9.81 m/s2 respectively, the hydrostatic force (in KN) exerted by the oil on the gate is
Consider the following statements:
1. If a condensing liquid does not wet a surface drop wise, then condensation will take place on it.
2. Drop wise condensation gives a higher heat transfer rate than filmwise condensation.
3. Reynolds number of condensing liquid is based on its mass flow rate.
4. Suitable coating or vapour additive is used to promote film-wise condensation.
Of these statements:
The Reynolds number for the flow of oil in a certain pipe is 640. The Darcy-Weisbach friction factor f for the flow is
In a turbulent flow through a pipe the centreline velocity is 3.61 m/s and the friction factor f=0.002. The mean velocity of the flow in m/s is
In a steady flow
If B=centre of buoyancy, G=is the centre of gravity and M=metacentre of a floating body, the body will be in stable equilibrium if
The head loss in 100m length of a 0.1m diameter pipe (f=0.02) carrying water is 10m. The boundary shear stress, in kPa, is
A circular pipe has a diameter of 1m, bed slope of 1in 1000, and Manning’s roughness coefficient equal to 0.01. It may be treated as an open channel flow when it is flowing just full, i.e., the water level just touches the crest. The discharge in this condition is dented by Q(full). Similarly, the discharge when the pipe is flowing half-full, i.e. with a flow depth of 0.5m, is denoted by Q(half). The ratio of Q(full)/ Q(half)
In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel the sequent depths are 0.25m and 1.25m. The energy loss in this jump is
The discharge Q in a pipe of know f is estimated by using the head loss hf in a length L and diameter D. If an error of 1% is involved in the measurement of D, the corresponding error in the estimation of Q is
For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm when the
nozzle angle is 200, the optimum velocity of steam in m/s is
A perfect fluid (also known as an ideal fluid
is),
A real fluid
The one which obeys perfect gas laws
Compressive and gaseous
Incompressible and frictionless
Broadly
speaking, water is ,
10 times more compressible than steel
80
times more compressible than steel
800
times les compressible than steel
8000
times les compressible than steel
Indicate the incorrect statement:
A flow
net ____________________
is
applicable to irrotational fluid flow
for
a given boundary is the same whether the flow is in one direction or the other
for
a given boundary is applicable to one chosen direction of flow; if the flow is
reversed the flow net will change
will
be so constructed that the size of the mesh is inversely proportional to the
local velocity
Bernoulli
equation is applicable between any two points,
in
any rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
in
any type of irrotational flow of a fluid
in
steady rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
in
steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
The
piezometric head of a flow is
the
sum of the velocity head and datum head
the
sum of the pressure head and velocity head
the
sum of the pressure head and velocity head
the
sum of the velocity head, pressure head and datum head
In a flow of a real fluid with no addition of energy
the energy line will be horizontal or sloping upward in the direction of the flow
2.the energy line can never be horizontal or sloping upward in the direction of the flow
3.the
piezometric line can never be horizontal or sloping downward in the direction
of the flow
the
centre line of the pipe can never be above the energy line
The
total head in a flow is the sum of
potential
head and datum head
piezometric
head and pressure head
piezometric
head and velocity head
piezometric
head, velocity head and datum head
The
difference between the total head line and the hydraulic grade line represents
the
velocity head
the
piezometric head
the
pressure head
the
elevation head
In
a pipeline the hydraulic grade line is above the pipe centre line is the
longitudinal section at point A and below the pipe centre line at another point
B. From this it can be inferred that
vaccum
pressure prevail at B
vaccum
pressure prevail at A
the
flow is from A to B
the
flow is from B to A
In
a two-dimensional duct flow air flows in the bottom half of the duct with
uniform velocity and there is no flow in the upper half. The value of the
kinetic energy correction factor for this flow is
2.0
2.25
3.0
4.0
A
15 cm diameter pipe carries a flow of 70 lit/s of an oil (RD=0.75). At a
section 12 cm above the datum the pressure is vaccum of 2 cm of mercury. If the
kinetic energy correction factor for this section is 1.1,the total head at the
section in meters of oil is
0.648
0.728
0.557
0.637
A nozzle direct a liquid jet at an angle of elevation 45 deg. The hydraulic grade line for the jet
coincides
with the centre line of the jet
will
be horizontal at the level of the jet
will
be horizontal at the level of the energy line
coincides
with the energy line
The
linear momentum equation is based on
Newton’s
law of viscosity
Newton’s
first law
Newton’s
second law
Newton’s
third law
A
control volume is
the
volume of fluid flowing per unit of time
a volume fixed in space
the volume in which a control device is situated
the
volume of the fluid controlling device
The
line momentum equation is
scalar
relation
an
approximate relation for engineering analysis
a
relation applicable to incompressible fluids only
a
vector relation
The
linear momentum equation applied to a control volume in a flow through a nozzle
yielded the resultant reaction force R, on the fluid in the control volume. The
force required to keep the nozzle in position is
the
same as R in magnitude and direction
equal
to R but opposite in direction
equal
to the x-component of R
equal
to R minus the friction force
A
jet of oil (R=0.8) has an area of 0.02 sq.m and a velocity of 10 m/s. If it
strikes a plate normally, the force exerted on the plate is
1597
N
1996
N
15665
N
19581
N
A
water jet has an area of 0.03 sq.m and
impinges normally on a plate. If a force of 1 kN is produced as a result of
this impact, the velocity of the jet, in m/s, is
15
33.4
3.4
5.78
A
water jet 0.015 sq.m in area has a velocity of 15 m/s. If this jet impinges normally on a plate which
is moving at a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of the jet, the force on the
plate due to this impact is
3368
N
2246
N
14907
N
14686
N
A
fire hose has a nozzle attached to it and the nozzle discharges a jet of water
into the atmosphere at 20 m/s. This places the joint of the nozzle
in
compression
in
tension
in
a state of zero stress
in
bending stresses
A
two-dimensional jet strikes a fixed two-dimensional plane at 45 deg. To the
normal to the plane. This causes the jet to split into two streams whose
discharges are in the ratio
1.0
2.41
5.83
1.414
The
velocity distribution over one half of a cross section is uniform and is zero
over the remaining half. The momentum correction factor for this cross section
is
2.0
4.0
1.0
3.0
Hydraulic
grade line for flow in a pipe of constant diameter is
always
above the centreline of the pipe
always
above the energy grade line
always
sloping downwards in the direction of the flow
coincides
with the pipe centreline
The total length of a valley formed by two gradients - 3% and + 2% curve
between the two tangent points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal
acceleration 0.6 m/sec2, for a design speed 100 kmph, is
16.0 m
42.3 m
3.84.6 m
98.4 m
In a shape test of aggregate, which one of the following gives the
correct slot for flakiness index of a material passing 50 mm sieve and retained
on 40 mm sieve?
25 mm
27 mm
30 mm
32 mm
For a flow of 5.7 MLD (Million Litres per Day) and a detention time of 2
hours, the surface area of a rectangular sedimentation tank to remove all
particles having settling velocity of 0.33 mm/s is
20 m2
100 m2
200 m2
4.400 m2
The moisture content of a clayey
soil is gradually decreased from a large value. What will be the correct
sequence of the occurrence of the following limits?
1.Shrikage limit
2. Plastic limit
3. Liquid limit
1, 2, 3
2,3,1
3,2,1
1,3,2
If a soil sample of weight 0.18 kg having a volume of 10-4 m3
and dry unit wt. of 1600 kg/m3 is mixed with 0.02 kg of water, then
the water content in the sample will be
30%
25%
20%
15%
Sewage sickness occurs when
sewage contains pathogenic organisms
2.sewage enters the water supply system
sewers get clogged due to accumulation of solids
voids of soil get closed due to continuous application of sewage on a
piece of land
If carbon monoxide is released at the rate of 0.03 m3/min
from a gasolene engine and 50 ppm is the threshold limit for an 8-hour
exposure, the quantity of air which dilutes the contaminant to a safe level
will be
60 m3/min
600 m3/min
600 m3/s
60 m3/s
Which one of the following would help prevent the escape of foul sewer
gases from a water closet?
gully trap
p-trap
3.intercepting trap
anti-siphon trap
What are the phenomena of global warming and acid rain formation
attributed to?
SO2 and CO2 respectively
CO and SO2, respectively
3.CO2 and SO2, respectively
CO and CO2, respectively
Which one of the following types of settling phenomenon can be analysed
by the classic sedimentation laws of Newton and Stokes?
Discrete settling
Flocculent settling
Hindered settling
Compression settling
In a design of storm sewers, if the time taken by rain-water to flow
from the farthest point of the watershed to the sewer inlet is 'ti'
and the time of flow of water from the sewer inlet to the point in the sewer
that is under consideration is 'tf', then the time of
concentration will be
ti
2.tf
3.ti + tf
ti or tf whichever is greater
Among the following, which is/are not pre-treatment unit (s)?
Bar screen and grit chamber
2.Flow equalization and proportioning tank
Neutralization for pH adjustment tank
Nutrient removal tank
Presence of nitrogen in waste water sample is due to the decomposition of
Carbohydrates
2.Proteins
Fats
Vitamins
Air binding may occur in
Sewers
Artesian well
3.Aerator
Filter
In standard penetration test, the splitspoon sampler is penetrated into the soil stratum by giving blows from a drop weight whose weight (in kg) and free fall (in cm) are, respectively,
30 and 60
60 and 30
65 and 75
75 and 65
The void-pressure diagram is shown above. What is the coefficient of compressibility?
0.5 m2/t
2.0.73 m2/t
0.20 m2/t
0.25 m2/t
According to Boussinesq's theory, the vertical stress at a point in a
semi-infinite soil mass depends upon
point load, coordinates of the point and modulus of elasticity of soil
point load, coordinates of the point, modulus of elasticity of soil and
its Poisson's ratio
point load and coordinates of the point
point load, coordinates of the point, modulus of elasticity of soil and
its density.
As per Terzaghi's equation, the bearing capacity of strip footing resting on cohesive soil (c = 10 kN/m2) for unit depth and unit width (assume Nc as 5.7 ) is
47 kN/m2
2.57 kN/m2
67 kN/m2
77 kN/m2
A and B
are Skempton's pore pressure coefficients. For saturated normally consolidated
soils,
A > 1 and B
> 1
A > 1 and B
< 1
A < 1 and B
> 1
A < 1 and B
= 1
In a compaction test on a soil sample, if the compaction energy is
decreased (γd = maximum dry density, OMC = optimum moisture content)
γd will increase with increase in OMC
γd will decrease with increase in OMC
γd will decrease with decrease in OMC
γd will increase with decrease in OMC
A sand deposit has a porosity of 0.375 and a specific gravity of 2.6,
the critical hydraulic gradient for the sand deposit is
2.975
2.225
1
0.75
Which one of the following states of field compaction of sand deposit
truly represents the corrected standard penetration test value: N (corrected) =
27?
Loose
Medium dense
Dense
Very dense
In a particular material, if the modulus of rigidity is equal to the bulk modulus, then the Poisson's ratio will be
1/8
1/4
3.1/2
1
Two men, one stronger than the other have to lift a load of 1200 N which is suspended from a light rod of length 3 m. The load is suspended between the two persons positioned at the two ends of the rod. The weaker of the two persons can carry a load up to 400 N only. The distance of the load to be suspended from the stronger person such that the weaker person has the full share of 400 N is
0.5 m
2.1.0 m
1.5 m
4.2.0 m
In a plane strain problem in XY plane, the shear strain = 12 x 10-6, and the normal strain in X and Y direction = 0, For this state of strain, what is the diameter of the Mohr's Circle of strain?
6 x 10-6
2.8 x 10-6
12 x l0-6
24 x l0-6
A horizontal fixed beam is fixed at both it ends A and B. During
loading, the right support sinks by an amount δ. Flexural rigidity of the beam
is uniform and is equal to EI. Length of the beam is L. What is
the moment developed at the centre of the beam due to sinking of the support?
6 EI δ/L2
0
3 EI δ/L2
-6 EI δ/L2
A horizontal beam is hinged at 'R' and supported on rollers at
the end 'S'. It carries inclined loads. To determine the support reactions,
the funicular polygon
must start only from the support 'S'
must start only from the support 'R'
could start only from anywhere on the vertical line through 'S'
could start from anywhere between 'R' and 'S'
The cross sections of the beams of equal length are a circle and a
square whose permissible bending stress is same under same maximum bending. The
ratio of their flexural weights is,
1.118
1.338
1.228
1.108
A rectangular log of wood is floating in water with a load of 100 N at
its centre. The maximum shear force in the wooden log is
50 N at each end
50 N at the centre
100 N at the centre
100 N at the each end
The influence line diagram for the force in member 'a' of the truss shown below is given by
Which one of the following conditions, both elastic and plastic methods
of analysis of indeterminate structures have to satisfy
yield condition
2.mechanism condition
equilibrium
compatibility of deformation
The degree of static indeterminacy of the rigid frame having two internal hinges as shown in the figure below, is
8
7
6
5
The outstand of the flange of built-up beams from the line of connection should not extend beyond:(where T is the thickness of flange and tw is the thickness of web)
10 T
85 T
180tw
In a diamond riveting, for a plate of width land rivet diameter 'd', the efficiency of the joint is given by
(b - d)/b
(b / 2d)/b
(b - d)/d
(b - 2d)/d
The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal to 37 mm plus (where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate).
2 t
4 t
3.6 t
8 t
The spans are considered approximately equal, if the longest span does not exceed the shortest span by more than
5%
10%
15%
4.20%
Rolled steel Tee-sections are used
as columns
as built up sections to resist axial tension
with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks
as built up sections to resist compression
For steel members not exposed to weather, the thickness of steel should not be less than
4.5 mm
2.6 mm
3.8 mm
10 mm
If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders without horizontal stiffeners, are spaced at a distance not less than
0.15 d
0.22 d
3.0.33 d
4.0.44 d
The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of compression member carrying
dead and superimposed load is
180
2.200
250
350
As the percentage of steel increases,
depth of neutral axis decreases
depth of neutral axis increases
lever arm increases
lever arm decreases
A reinforced concrete structure has to be constructed along a sea coast. The minimum grade of concrete to be used as per IS : 456-2000
M 15
M 20
M 25
M 30
The lateral ties in a reinforced concrete rectangular column are used to
:
avoid the buckling of the longitudinal steel under compression
2.provide adequate shear capacity
3.provide adequate confinement to concrete
reduce the axial deformation of the column
The maximum allowable compressive stress corresponding to lateral
buckling in a discretely laterally supported symmetrical I beam does not depend
upon :
the modulus of elasticity
2.the radius of gyration about the minor axis
3.the span length of the beam
the ratio of overall depth of thickness of the flange
If the diameter of the main reinforcement in a slab is 16 mm, the concrete cover to main bars is
12 mm
14 mm
16 mm
4.18 mm
In the zone of R.C.C. beam where shear stress is less than 5 kg/cm2,
nominal reinforcement is provided at a pitch of
one-half lever arm of the section
one-third lever arm of the section
3.lever arm of the section
one fourth lever arm of the section
For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied, if
the ratio of its span to its overall depth does not exceed
10
15
20
25
The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor
beams. The ratio of the end and intermediate spans is kept
0.7
0.8
0.9
1.0
An R.C.C. beam of 6 m span is 30 cm wide and has a lever arm of 55 cm.
If it carries a U.D.L. of 12 t per m and allowable shear stress is 5 kg/cm2,
the beam
is safe in shear
2.is safe with stirrups
3.is safe with stirrups and inclined bars
needs revision of section
Columns may be made of plain concrete, if their unsupported lengths do
not exceed their least lateral dimension
two times
three times
four times
five times
The zone in which transverse bending is likely to occur may be obtained
by drawing a line from the faces of the column making an angle θ° with
horizontal, where θ° is
30°
45°
60°
90°
A reinforced concrete column contains longitudinal steel equal to 1 percent of net cross-sectional area of the column. Assume modular ratio as 10. The loads carried (using the elastic theory) by the longitudinal steel and the net area of concrete, are Ps and Pc respectively. The ratio Ps/Pc expressed as percent is
10
2.1.1
3.1
0.1
A model of a weir made to a horizontal scale of 1/40 and vertical scale
of 1/9 discharges 1 litre/sec. Then the discharge in the prototype is estimated
as
10 lps
108 lps
1080 lps
10800 lps
In a laminar boundary layer, the velocity distribution can be assumed to be given, in usual notations, as
Which one of the following is the correct expression for the
displacement thickness δ* for this boundary layer?
δ* = δ
δ* = δ/2
δ* = δ/4
δ* = δ/6
The head loss in a pipe of diameter d, carrying oil at a flow
rate Q over a distance l is h. The pipe is replaced by
another with half the diameter, all other things remaining the same. The head
loss in this case will be
0.5 h
2.2.0 h
8.0 h
32.0 h
A very tiny sphere is settling down in a viscous liquid at Reynolds
number = 0.2. Its drag coefficient is equal to
320
120
3.80
4.40
If the Froude number of flow in an open channel is more than 1.0, then
the flow is said to be
critical
shooting
3.streaming
transitional
When two moving bodies collide with each other, their velocity of
separation bears a constant ratio to their velocity of approach. This ratio is
termed as coefficient of
collidity
friction
restitution
permeability
The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25 m. The material of the dam has a specific gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as an elementary profile ignoring uplift. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam?
64 m
2.40 m
3.164 m
80 m
The ordinate of the Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment
at any time t, is
The slope of the 1-hour unit hydrograph at that time
The slope of the direct runoff unit hydrograph at that time
Difference in the slope of the S-curve and 1-hour unit hydrograph
4.The slope of the S-curve with effective rainfall intensity of 1
cm/hr
For an anisotropic soil, permeability in x and y
directions are kx and ky respectively in a
two dimensional flow. The effective permeability keq for the
soil is given by
kx + ky
2.kx/ky
(kx2 + ky2)1/2
(kxky)1/2
Flow at critical depth takes place in an open channel,
for a given specific energy, discharge is maximum
for a given discharge, specific energy is maximum
discharge is minimum for a given specific energy
discharge is maximum for a given specific force